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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
??? What the?
Can you read? Did I say that?
Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by jcutler12888
If the priest/minister does baptize in the name of Christ, they are not really Catholic/Protestant since that baptism is considered to be heresy to both groups.
Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by jcutler12888
If the priest/minister does baptize in the name of Christ, they are not really Catholic/Protestant since that baptism is considered to be heresy to both groups.
That's funny. I go to a missionary baptist church, but am nondenominational. My wife is the baptist, yet our preacher baptized me in the name of Jesus Christ. Unless I missed something, baptists, southern baptists and missionary baptists came out of the Protestant Reformation. It is not heresy to both groups for God's sake, Apostle Peter said to baptize in Christ's name.
Jesus said to baptize in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, but Peter gave us that name being filled with the Holy Spirit right then.
Acts 2:38-39
38 Then Peter said to them, “Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39 For the promise is to you and to your children, and to all who are afar off, as many as the Lord our God will call.”
You may think that but the reality of it only exists inside your own imagination.
Um, Word, (Logos), is a metaphorical title John ascribes to Jesus, the Son of God.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
I went to a lot of trouble to go through the entire Greek Old Testament to find every occurrence of the word Logos, and it never is used to describe a person in there.
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. (John 1:1-3 NIV)
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical
You may think that but the reality of it only exists inside your own imagination.
Um, Word, (Logos), is a metaphorical title John ascribes to Jesus, the Son of God.
The Greek word λόγος is used in the Bible to describe a lot of things, but never a person, except in Revelation where the "word of God" is personified in a fantastic vision.
I went to a lot of trouble to go through the entire Greek Old Testament to find every occurrence of the word Logos, and it never is used to describe a person in there. You can check the list on my blog,
Reading the Bible in Greek
edit on 1-8-2013 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by jmdewey60
I went to a lot of trouble to go through the entire Greek Old Testament to find every occurrence of the word Logos, and it never is used to describe a person in there.
What difference does that make? Read John 1:1-3
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. (John 1:1-3 NIV)
"He" and "him" are referencing "the Word", someone that is God, and can be with God, i.e.: Jesus Christ.
Seems like the Holy Spirit wouldn't make a fallacy of logic.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
I know you're not that stupid that you can't follow a simple dialogue so I'm forced to assume you're reflecting. The original point was you're capitalization of the word "plan", and ascribing personal characteristics to that word.
Quit deflecting by playing stupid.
The word here that normally gets translated in this verse as "he" is the Greek word, οὗτος, which means basically, "this", so can be translated as he, she, it, or this.
"He" and "him" are referencing "the Word", someone that is God, and can be with God, i.e.: Jesus Christ.
John was using Logos as a metaphorical title for Jesus.
Originally posted by jcutler12888
Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by jcutler12888
If the priest/minister does baptize in the name of Christ, they are not really Catholic/Protestant since that baptism is considered to be heresy to both groups.
That's funny. I go to a missionary baptist church, but am nondenominational. My wife is the baptist, yet our preacher baptized me in the name of Jesus Christ. Unless I missed something, baptists, southern baptists and missionary baptists came out of the Protestant Reformation. It is not heresy to both groups for God's sake, Apostle Peter said to baptize in Christ's name.
Jesus said to baptize in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, but Peter gave us that name being filled with the Holy Spirit right then.
Acts 2:38-39
38 Then Peter said to them, “Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39 For the promise is to you and to your children, and to all who are afar off, as many as the Lord our God will call.”
My point exactly. My father is a Southern Baptist and from everything I've seen, Baptists (of every variety) baptize in the name of Jesus Christ, as do other Protestant denominations. I don't understand, TrueJew...have you ever actually been exposed to faiths and churches in person for a reasonable length of time other than your own?edit on 8/1/2013 by jcutler12888 because: (no reason given)
Correct, it's a metaphorical title.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Plan (Schedio) is not a synonym for Word (Logos). Especially in Greek.
Actually you can, if you go back to the original Greek and translate it into English with "it" instead of "He".
Nope, you can't do that, because "He" in verse two is a personal pronoun, so it can't be replaced with an impersonal article like "The plan of the Son of God". You can replace "the Word" with it (though that's obviously not what John meant) but you cannot replace "He" with it, so your passage is:
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by adjensen
Actually you can, if you go back to the original Greek and translate it into English with "it" instead of "He".
Nope, you can't do that, because "He" in verse two is a personal pronoun, so it can't be replaced with an impersonal article like "The plan of the Son of God". You can replace "the Word" with it (though that's obviously not what John meant) but you cannot replace "He" with it, so your passage is:
You are making an argument based on someone's interpretation of what the context is.
It can go either way, depending on whether you think it means a person or not.
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Plan (Schedio) is not a synonym for Word (Logos). Especially in Greek.
It can be in English. Which is what I am speaking.