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Originally posted by Deetermined
Originally posted by pthena
reply to post by Deetermined
Me, for one. Akragon, jmdewey, sacgamer25, just off the top of my head,(my apologies to those I've missed) many and many more.
Each in his own way, each by different means, each according to who they are and where they happen to be in spiritual needs. There is a god at work. Probably working for God, we certainly hope so, because a god working for a god doesn't quite cut it.
edit on 1-6-2013 by pthena because: (no reason given)
I'm not sure I understand what you're saying here in response to the verses I posted where Jesus is speaking.
Can you elaborate?
Originally posted by Deetermined
reply to post by Akragon
Mark 9:39
39 But Jesus said, Forbid him not: for there is no man which shall do a miracle in my name, that can lightly speak evil of me.
When we put all of these verses together in context, what are you saying that they mean? I still don't follow. What MAN are we talking about?
John 10:15-16
15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.
16 And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.
Who do you think Jesus was talking about in verse 16?
Originally posted by Deetermined
reply to post by Akragon
Somehow, I thought we were still on the subject of Paul and what he preached or the O.T. God and I must have misunderstood.
Regarding the verses in Mark 9, Jesus also said that not everyone who cast out demons in his name would be saved either. This might take some deeper digging and study.
Matthew 7:22-23
22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?
23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.
And then I answered the way that I answered, assuming you were asking about "other sheep". If you were asking instead about "one shepherd" then I would assume that Jesus was referring to himself.
In which case, I could be in serious trouble since I'm not quite in any fold, unless the fold is all people. If Jesus is the shepherd himself, then I am in trouble because I think that Jesus is representing the Top Shepherd.
Does that make any sense? I'll have to re-read it.
Originally posted by Akragon
Originally posted by troubleshooter
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by troubleshooter
O...k?
That doesn't answer this question does it?
This answers the question...
"Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise partook of the same nature, that through death he might destroy him who has the power of death, that is, the devil, and deliver all those who through fear of death were subject to lifelong bondage." Hebrews 2:14-15
No it doesn't...
I asked you the question not Paul.. or Psudo-Paul.. or whoever wrote Hebrews...
IF you don't want to answer just say so... Don't quote me a bible passage that has nothing to do with the question I asked of you...
Originally posted by troubleshooter
Originally posted by Akragon
Originally posted by troubleshooter
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by troubleshooter
O...k?
That doesn't answer this question does it?
This answers the question...
"Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise partook of the same nature, that through death he might destroy him who has the power of death, that is, the devil, and deliver all those who through fear of death were subject to lifelong bondage." Hebrews 2:14-15
No it doesn't...
I asked you the question not Paul.. or Psudo-Paul.. or whoever wrote Hebrews...
IF you don't want to answer just say so... Don't quote me a bible passage that has nothing to do with the question I asked of you...
Who cares who wrote it ... it is the answer to you question 'How does Blood save?'
Jesus was including the Jews and the Gentiles in his statement.
Jesus is God's voice and was the means from which God spoke
John 1:17 For the law was given through Moses. Grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ.
Originally posted by Akragon
Originally posted by troubleshooter
Originally posted by Akragon
Originally posted by troubleshooter
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by troubleshooter
O...k?
That doesn't answer this question does it?
This answers the question...
"Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise partook of the same nature, that through death he might destroy him who has the power of death, that is, the devil, and deliver all those who through fear of death were subject to lifelong bondage." Hebrews 2:14-15
No it doesn't...
I asked you the question not Paul.. or Psudo-Paul.. or whoever wrote Hebrews...
IF you don't want to answer just say so... Don't quote me a bible passage that has nothing to do with the question I asked of you...
Who cares who wrote it ... it is the answer to you question 'How does Blood save?'
That isn't what I asked you... that was the question for the thread...
And that's great if you believe that's an answer... I disagree
So why don't you answer the question I asked you specifically?
The question of this thread seems a bit disingenuous considering the revealed perspective of the OP.
Originally posted by SoulReaper
reply to post by Akragon
Irrelevant to you... which is kinda relevant to this discussion.. since you started it...
Soul
The only way for the Jews to be saved, because of what they had believed, was to accept forgiveness of sins. But as you can see by the way the disciples scattered even the miracles were not enough for them to feel truly forgiven, it was not until after Christ shed his BLOOD on the cross and was Resurrected that his disciples believed in his new message, forgiveness of sins.
Mark 2: 8 Immediately Jesus, perceiving in his spirit that they so reasoned within themselves, said to them, "“Why do you reason these things in your hearts? 9 Which is easier, to tell the paralytic, ‘Your sins are forgiven;’ or to say, ‘Arise, and take up your bed, and walk?’ 10 But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins”"—he said to the paralytic— 11 "“I tell you, arise, take up your mat, and go to your house.”"
12 He arose, and immediately took up the mat, and went out in front of them all; so that they were all amazed, and glorified God, saying, “We never saw anything like this!”
For those of you that absolutely hate the OT. If the Jews would have followed Moses, I imagine Christ would not have been necessary. The Jews were told to spread their religion by love and through love. But instead of doing what they were told they looked down on foreigners and believed that they were the only ones who deserved God's love. But clearly Moses teaches something much different here.
As he passed through Thrance he was insulted by King Lycurgus, who bitterly opposed his new religion. Initialy Dionysus retreated into the sea but, he returned, overpowered Lycurgus and imprisoned him in a rocky cave. Dionysus planned to let him reflect and learn from his mistakes. However, Zeus did not care to have the gods insulted, so he blinded then killed Lycurgus.
I would submit that if one did wish to seek understanding regarding "IF" and "HOW" blood can save. One would have to widen ones gaze to consider the following questions as well.
What does the blood represent?
What does a human need to be saved from?
Why does one need to be saved?
From Whom does one need to be saved?
And regarding the Whom,
What are his attributes?
What has he revealed to man kind, if anything?
For what purpose have these things been revealed?
The case for translating hilasterion as "expiation" instead of "propitiation" was put forward by C. H. Dodd in 1935 and at first gained wide support. As a result, hilasterion has been translated as "expiation" in the RSV and other modern versions. Dodd argued that in pagan Greek the translation of hilasterion was indeed to propitiate, but that in the Septuagint (the oldest Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament) that kapporeth (Hebrew for "atone") is often translated with words that mean "to cleanse or remove" (Dodd, "The Bible and the Greeks", p 93). This view was challenged by Leon Morris who argued that because of the focus in the book of Romans on God's wrath, that the concept of hilasterion needed to include the appeasement of God's wrath (Morris, Apostolic Preaching of the Cross, p 155).
Theologians stress the idea of propitiation because it specifically addresses the aspect of the Atonement dealing with God's wrath. Critics of penal substitutionary atonement state that seeing the Atonement as appeasing God is a pagan idea that makes God seem tyrannical (Stricken by God?, Eerdmans: 2007).
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by troubleshooter
Thank you!
See... wasn't that easy?