It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
Originally posted by adjensen
reply to post by lonewolf19792000
Ask yourself, how Mary can be the Mother of God?
Actually, to say that she is not the mother of God is to stray into Arianism. Jesus is the incarnation of the Word, fully man and fully God. So, unless you want to say that Mary didn't give birth to him, provide half of his DNA, didn't raise him as her child, and wasn't referred to as "Mom" by Jesus; or unless you reject Jesus as being God, then yes, Mary is the mother of God.
However, in no way does the Roman Catholic church teach that she is superior to God, that she pre-existed God, or that she is to be worshipped as God. It clearly rejects all of those things in the Catechism.
My position is, he always existed.
Well, that's the position of the Roman Catholic church, as well. But one can't separate "fully man" and "fully God" without straying into Arianism (TJ, for example, claims that sometimes Jesus was a man, sometimes he was a god -- obvious Arianism,) so Mary, in being the mother of Jesus, may be referred to as the mother of God. The only way that one can say that Mary wasn't the mother of God is to either say she wasn't the mother of Jesus (obvious folly) or there was a point where Jesus wasn't God (obvious Arianism.)
Once again, I recognize your issue with the term, Mariology is one of the aspects of Roman Catholicism that I really do not get, but one need not draw anything out from the term (like thinking that Mary pre-existed God,) it's just a description of her role in the plan of salvation.
Speak to Mary, anyone can speak to her in prayer.
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
TJ, for example, claims that sometimes Jesus was a man, sometimes he was a god -- obvious Arianism
I do not. I believe that Jesus was at all times fully God and fully man. God humbled in the role of a man without giving up His divinity.
Originally posted by truejew
In Latin the letter "I" had a "J" sound when followed by a vowel. The same as Greek.
Originally posted by adjensen
A number of times you have said that when Jesus spoke on certain occasions, he was "speaking as a man" -- indicating that he was not God at that point. Are you now retracting that statement?
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by colbe
Speak to Mary, anyone can speak to her in prayer.
I don't speak to my dead relatives or friends in prayer so why would I do that to Mary?
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
A number of times you have said that when Jesus spoke on certain occasions, he was "speaking as a man" -- indicating that he was not God at that point. Are you now retracting that statement?
Jesus speaking as a man does not mean that He was not God. He was both. Since my teaching has not changed, I have nothing to retract
Originally posted by Solmani
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by colbe
Speak to Mary, anyone can speak to her in prayer.
I don't speak to my dead relatives or friends in prayer so why would I do that to Mary?
Because Mary was never human in the first place.
Have you never heard of the Shekinah? The Queen of Heaven?
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
A number of times you have said that when Jesus spoke on certain occasions, he was "speaking as a man" -- indicating that he was not God at that point. Are you now retracting that statement?
Jesus speaking as a man does not mean that He was not God. He was both. Since my teaching has not changed, I have nothing to retract
How does that make any sense? If he was both, then he was speaking as both.
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
A number of times you have said that when Jesus spoke on certain occasions, he was "speaking as a man" -- indicating that he was not God at that point. Are you now retracting that statement?
Jesus speaking as a man does not mean that He was not God. He was both. Since my teaching has not changed, I have nothing to retract
How does that make any sense? If he was both, then he was speaking as both.
God humbled Himself as a man.
Either Jesus was fully man and fully God, and thus, when speaking, he spoke as both, or there were times when he was not divine, and thus able to speak as "just a man". You can't have both instances
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by adjensen
Either Jesus was fully man and fully God, and thus, when speaking, he spoke as both, or there were times when he was not divine, and thus able to speak as "just a man". You can't have both instances
What of his times of weakness?
Can he be "fully God" when asking for mercy?
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by adjensen
Either Jesus was fully man and fully God, and thus, when speaking, he spoke as both, or there were times when he was not divine, and thus able to speak as "just a man". You can't have both instances
What of his times of weakness?
Can he be "fully God" when asking for mercy?
Of course, why not?
Originally posted by adjensen
But he was still God.
Originally posted by Akragon
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by adjensen
Either Jesus was fully man and fully God, and thus, when speaking, he spoke as both, or there were times when he was not divine, and thus able to speak as "just a man". You can't have both instances
What of his times of weakness?
Can he be "fully God" when asking for mercy?
Of course, why not?
Who would he be asking if not himself?
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by adjensen
Either Jesus was fully man and fully God, and thus, when speaking, he spoke as both, or there were times when he was not divine, and thus able to speak as "just a man". You can't have both instances
What of his times of weakness?
Can he be "fully God" when asking for mercy?
Of course, why not?
Originally posted by Solmani
Originally posted by Akragon
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by adjensen
Either Jesus was fully man and fully God, and thus, when speaking, he spoke as both, or there were times when he was not divine, and thus able to speak as "just a man". You can't have both instances
What of his times of weakness?
Can he be "fully God" when asking for mercy?
Of course, why not?
Who would he be asking if not himself?
The answer to that would surprise you, not to mention a whole lot of Christians.