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Originally posted by Solmani
reply to post by Akragon
Promise to get back to you later today.
Originally posted by Akragon
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by adjensen
Either Jesus was fully man and fully God, and thus, when speaking, he spoke as both, or there were times when he was not divine, and thus able to speak as "just a man". You can't have both instances
What of his times of weakness?
Can he be "fully God" when asking for mercy?
Of course, why not?
Who would he be asking if not himself?
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by Akragon
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by adjensen
Either Jesus was fully man and fully God, and thus, when speaking, he spoke as both, or there were times when he was not divine, and thus able to speak as "just a man". You can't have both instances
What of his times of weakness?
Can he be "fully God" when asking for mercy?
Of course, why not?
Who would he be asking if not himself?
If you are referring to the scene at Gethsemane, it is the second person of the trinity submitting to the will of the trinity, to the Father's plan of salvation. Does Jesus want to suffer? Of course not, who would? Does he willingly suffer? Yes, because that is the will of the trinity.
That's probably a theological passage, not an historical one, of course -- the Apostles who were present were asleep and couldn't be eyewitnesses to what Jesus was doing or praying.
Originally posted by truejew
If that was the case, it would go against the co-equality of the trinity.
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
If that was the case, it would go against the co-equality of the trinity.
No, it doesn't, it is Jesus acceding to the will of the trinity, affirming the equality of the trinity. Jesus doesn't want to suffer, but does so because that is God's will.
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by adjensen
Does that mean god is a democracy?
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
If that was the case, it would go against the co-equality of the trinity.
No, it doesn't, it is Jesus acceding to the will of the trinity, affirming the equality of the trinity. Jesus doesn't want to suffer, but does so because that is God's will.
By saying that God was not speaking as a man you are contradicting the co-equality of the trinity and falling into the error of Arius.
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
If that was the case, it would go against the co-equality of the trinity.
No, it doesn't, it is Jesus acceding to the will of the trinity, affirming the equality of the trinity. Jesus doesn't want to suffer, but does so because that is God's will.
By saying that God was not speaking as a man you are contradicting the co-equality of the trinity and falling into the error of Arius.
You exhibit absolutely zero understanding of the Doctrine of the Trinity, so I'm not sure that you're the right person to be teaching on the subject.
I never said "God was not speaking as a man", I said that he was speaking as man and as God -- when you separate them, as you do, you are espousing an Arian view.
Originally posted by truejew
Your the one teaching Arian doctrine.
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
Your the one teaching Arian doctrine.
Okay, we can add Arianism to the list of things that you do not understand.
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
Your the one teaching Arian doctrine.
Okay, we can add Arianism to the list of things that you do not understand.
Originally posted by truejew
I teach that Jesus humbled Himself into the role of a man while still being fully God.
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
Your the one teaching Arian doctrine.
Okay, we can add Arianism to the list of things that you do not understand.
I don't think you understand Arianism. I teach that Jesus humbled Himself into the role of a man while still being fully God.
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
I teach that Jesus humbled Himself into the role of a man while still being fully God.
When you claim that when Jesus spoke, he was just a man speaking, not man and God speaking, that is Arianistic thinking.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by colbe
Speak to Mary, anyone can speak to her in prayer.
I don't speak to my dead relatives or friends in prayer so why would I do that to Mary?
Originally posted by Solmani
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by colbe
Speak to Mary, anyone can speak to her in prayer.
I don't speak to my dead relatives or friends in prayer so why would I do that to Mary?
Because Mary was never human in the first place.
Have you never heard of the Shekinah? The Queen of Heaven?
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
I teach that Jesus humbled Himself into the role of a man while still being fully God.
When you claim that when Jesus spoke, he was just a man speaking, not man and God speaking, that is Arianistic thinking.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
Your the one teaching Arian doctrine.
Okay, we can add Arianism to the list of things that you do not understand.
I don't think you understand Arianism. I teach that Jesus humbled Himself into the role of a man while still being fully God.
That contradicts what you previously said which was that when He was praying to the Father it was "as a man". Like He could just turn on and off being "fully God" like a light switch.
I don't speak to my dead relatives or friends in prayer