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Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by adjensen
You seem to be stuck in the opinion that we teach long hair makes a woman holy. We do not teach that.
Have you ever heard of the "inversion principle" in logic? When you try and make the argument that women with short hair are unholy, you indirectly assert by the principle of inversion that women with long hair are holy.
That logic is incorrect. If a cookie looks bad on the outside, it is because it is also bad on the inside. A cookie that looks good on the outside, can be either good or bad on the inside.
What are you talking about with cookies? And Google the inversion principle. It's basic logic
Can you provide Scripture for this "principle"? I don't consider Google to be God's word.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by adjensen
You seem to be stuck in the opinion that we teach long hair makes a woman holy. We do not teach that.
Have you ever heard of the "inversion principle" in logic? When you try and make the argument that women with short hair are unholy, you indirectly assert by the principle of inversion that women with long hair are holy.
That logic is incorrect. If a cookie looks bad on the outside, it is because it is also bad on the inside. A cookie that looks good on the outside, can be either good or bad on the inside.
What are you talking about with cookies? And Google the inversion principle. It's basic logic
Can you provide Scripture for this "principle"? I don't consider Google to be God's word.
Who said it was. The entire Bible is truth, but not every truth is contained in the Bible.
Originally posted by adjensen
reply to post by truejew
The apostles understood it to be about water baptism and Spirit baptism. That is why Peter preached his Acts 2:38 message.
Where does it say that Acts 2:38 is predicated on the passage in Matthew that isn't about baptism? Saying "The apostles understood it" is both baseless and presumptuous.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Now you're purposely being deceptive. What did Jesus say about baptism in Matthew 28:19? What method or formula did He command His followers to partake of and teach?
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by adjensen
You seem to be stuck in the opinion that we teach long hair makes a woman holy. We do not teach that.
Have you ever heard of the "inversion principle" in logic? When you try and make the argument that women with short hair are unholy, you indirectly assert by the principle of inversion that women with long hair are holy.
That logic is incorrect. If a cookie looks bad on the outside, it is because it is also bad on the inside. A cookie that looks good on the outside, can be either good or bad on the inside.
What are you talking about with cookies? And Google the inversion principle. It's basic logic
Can you provide Scripture for this "principle"? I don't consider Google to be God's word.
Who said it was. The entire Bible is truth, but not every truth is contained in the Bible.
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Now you're purposely being deceptive. What did Jesus say about baptism in Matthew 28:19? What method or formula did He command His followers to partake of and teach?
I am not being deceptive. According to Luke, that is what Jesus said. The formula He commanded was in "His name", the name of Jesus Christ.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Now you're purposely being deceptive. What did Jesus say about baptism in Matthew 28:19? What method or formula did He command His followers to partake of and teach?
I am not being deceptive. According to Luke, that is what Jesus said. The formula He commanded was in "His name", the name of Jesus Christ.
.
You are lying. In Matthew 28:19 he tells His disciples to baptize in the Name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. You are being deceptive because you refuse to acknowledge it says that.
The baptismal formula was changed from the name of Jesus Christ to the words Father, Son, and Holy Spirit by the Catholic Church in the second century.
- The Catholic Encyclopedia, II, page 263
The basic form of our (Matthew 28:19 Trinitarian) profession of faith took shape during the course of the second and third centuries in connection with the ceremony of baptism. So far as its place of origin is concerned, the text (Matthew 28:19) came from the city of Rome.
- Catholic Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Is Calculus false?
It was not taught to us by God.
Originally posted by truejew
The baptismal formula was changed from the name of Jesus Christ to the words Father, Son, and Holy Spirit by the Catholic Church in the second century.
- The Catholic Encyclopedia, II, page 263
it is also obligatory to mention the separate persons of the Holy Trinity. This is the command of Christ to His Disciples, and as the sacrament has its efficacy from Him Who instituted it, we can not omit anything that He has prescribed. Nothing is more certain than that this has been the general understanding and practice of the Church.
The basic form of our (Matthew 28:19 Trinitarian) profession of faith took shape during the course of the second and third centuries in connection with the ceremony of baptism. So far as its place of origin is concerned, the text (Matthew 28:19) came from the city of Rome.
- Catholic Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger
It may be useful to preface the discussion with a few facts about the origin and structure of the Creed; these will at the same time throw some light on the legitimacy of the procedure. The basic form of our profession of faith took shape during the course of the second and third centuries in connection with the ceremony of baptism. So far as its place of origin is concerned, the text comes from the city of Rome; but its internal origin lies in worship; more precisely, in the conferring of baptism. This again was fundamentally based on the words of the risen Christ recorded in Matthew 28:19: "Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit." (Source)
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by adjensen
Blatant deception yet again? No you don't say!
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Scripture doesn't teach what you claimed, that's just legalism.
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
The baptismal formula was changed from the name of Jesus Christ to the words Father, Son, and Holy Spirit by the Catholic Church in the second century.
- The Catholic Encyclopedia, II, page 263
You know what's funny about that quote, TrueJew? It seems authentic, and fairly well supportive of your point. The fact that it is an old book, with page cite, lends it credibility. After all, who has the 1913 edition of the Catholic Encyclopedia to look it up?
Well, it turns out that someone had one, and scanned it in. Catholic Encyclopedia, page 263, entry on baptism. Does your text appear on that page? No, it does not.
It does, in fact, say this:
it is also obligatory to mention the separate persons of the Holy Trinity. This is the command of Christ to His Disciples, and as the sacrament has its efficacy from Him Who instituted it, we can not omit anything that He has prescribed. Nothing is more certain than that this has been the general understanding and practice of the Church.
I hope that you demonstrate the "fruits of the spirit" in never posting that patently false citation again, and discourage your fellow anti-Trinitarians from doing so, as well.
The basic form of our (Matthew 28:19 Trinitarian) profession of faith took shape during the course of the second and third centuries in connection with the ceremony of baptism. So far as its place of origin is concerned, the text (Matthew 28:19) came from the city of Rome.
- Catholic Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger
And, oopsies, we have another problem here, because that isn't what Cardinal Ratzinger actually said.
It may be useful to preface the discussion with a few facts about the origin and structure of the Creed; these will at the same time throw some light on the legitimacy of the procedure. The basic form of our profession of faith took shape during the course of the second and third centuries in connection with the ceremony of baptism. So far as its place of origin is concerned, the text comes from the city of Rome; but its internal origin lies in worship; more precisely, in the conferring of baptism. This again was fundamentally based on the words of the risen Christ recorded in Matthew 28:19: "Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit." (Source)
Ratzinger is talking about the Creed, not scripture, and not baptism. The Nicene Creed is the profession of faith, which was indeed developed in the second and third centuries, and which was composed in Rome.
Once again, I hope that you will display the "fruits of the spirit" in no longer taking Cardinal Ratzinger's comments completely out of context, and misrepresenting what he actually said, which was an absolute validation of Matthew 28:19.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by adjensen
Blatant deception yet again? No you don't say!
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by adjensen
If someone or group needs to deliberately lie to support a doctrine that's evil. A wolf in sheep's clothing.
Originally posted by truejew
No response to Eusebius' quote?