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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by Snsoc
reply to post by NOTurTypical
The New Living translation is the only one that includes the words "to Him" in that verse. All of the others simply say we are to confess. See here: bible.cc...
We are commanded to confess to one another, (James 5:16) and the power of forgiveness is given to men.(john 20:23)
Well the implication is obvious there. In another scripture it says against Him and only Him do we sin. No point in confessing sin and asking for forgiveness from so.some other than God who cannot forgive sin.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by colbe
If people need the "hear" words of affirmation to know that their sins are forgiven they don't believe the Word of God. Which says when we confess to God He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
I believe that scripture. I doubt John was lying.edit on 3-5-2013 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by colbe
My teaching on Genesis 1:26 has been the same in every post on the subject.
Originally posted by Snsoc
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by colbe
If people need the "hear" words of affirmation to know that their sins are forgiven they don't believe the Word of God. Which says when we confess to God He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
I believe that scripture. I doubt John was lying.edit on 3-5-2013 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)
Please explain the Gospel of John when it said that if the disciples forgave anyone their sins those sins would be forgiven, and if they didn't they weren't. (John 20:23).edit on 4-5-2013 by Snsoc because: clarity
Originally posted by Snsoc
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by colbe
If people need the "hear" words of affirmation to know that their sins are forgiven they don't believe the Word of God. Which says when we confess to God He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
I believe that scripture. I doubt John was lying.edit on 3-5-2013 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)
Please explain the Gospel of John when it said that if the disciples forgave anyone their sins those sins would be forgiven, and if they didn't they weren't. (John 20:23).edit on 4-5-2013 by Snsoc because: clarity
Jesus gave the first priests, the disciples, His ministerial priests, the power to forgive sins.
Originally posted by colbe
Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by colbe
My teaching on Genesis 1:26 has been the same in every post on the subject.
You said it, here is the problem, "My teaching" dear truejew. PO means nothing, you have no authority.
There are only a FEW sects who reject the Holy Trinity. Why don't you try to look at why?
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
We don't find the way, the Good Shepherd chooses us. (John 15:16). In fact, no man can even come to Christ unless the Father first draws that person to Him. Furthermore, Jesus says that all that the Father has given to Him He will lose none.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Do you know the meaning of the terms "the many" and "the few" in Greek? In English it's generally understood that "few" means a very small percentage. However in Greek, the many simply means the majority and the few means the minority. You could have a 51/49% split in Greek and the 51% would be "the many" and the 49% group would be "the few".
But I do believe the percentage of believers is much lower than that in regards to population, maybe 10-15%.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
"In the Name of" means "in the authority of". It's not some magic incantation.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Besides that, baptism is what believers do once they believe, baptism doesn't give people faith, it's an expression of the faith they already have.
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
"In the Name of" means "in the authority of". It's not some magic incantation.
That does not mean that the authority is not spoken. The apostles,the early Church, and scholars will tell you that the name of Jesus Christ was spoken at baptism.
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
"In the Name of" means "in the authority of". It's not some magic incantation.
That does not mean that the authority is not spoken. The apostles,the early Church, and scholars will tell you that the name of Jesus Christ was spoken at baptism.
But, unlike you, they never taught that speaking that name actually did something, it was just part of the ceremony, as it remains today in every Christian baptism. Saying "I baptize you in the name of the Father, in the name of the Son and in the name of the Holy Spirit" is the same thing -- invoking the authority of God.
Saying that you have to say "I baptize you in the name of gee-zus" or it doesn't work brings you back into the realm of magic words and incantations.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
So you're claiming that there are millions of people that confess Jesus as Lord, trust Him as their Savior, and believe in their heart that God raised Him from the dead who will not be saved when they die?
Is this your doctrine?