Do you know the truth? Is Jesus God? Find out here!

a reply to: whereislogic

“The Word [Jesus] was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory.” (John 1:14, KJ) How, then, could the Son be part of Almighty God? John also states that the Word was “with God.” But how can an individual be with someone and at the same time be that person?

Uh, because he is God! Hello! Wake up! That's what the Bible has been saying all along!

Colossians 2:9 - For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form,

Mark 12:29 - And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one Lord:

Deuteronomy 6:4 - Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord:

John 10:30 - I and my Father are one.

1 John 5:7 - For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

John 1:1-3 - 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 The same was in the beginning with God.

3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

John 1:14 - And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

a reply to: Deetermined

Good try, but there is absolutely nowhere in the Bible that says that angels had anything to do with creating man or anything else.

No one said there was.

You're making it up, since you know you don't have a leg to stand on in this argument.

You mean like what you just made up?

No, I don't see the the other poster making anything up, you on the other hand in this post I am quoting just did.

Did you just misinterpret what was said or did you purposely make it up and then accuse another of making stuff up?

a reply to: Deetermined

Good try, but there is absolutely nowhere in the Bible that says that angels had anything to do with creating man or anything else. You're making it up, since you know you don't have a leg to stand on in this argument.

This of course is coming from someone who bases their belief in God on something that isn't even in the book they believe in... not even the word for your belief can be found in the bible...

Talk about building your house on sand... and i didn't say angels had anything to do with Creating anything

apparently reading comprehension is a big problem in your religion

Also, i said a "word study"... but like a typical christian you just googled the word elohim and posted the first link you found... obviously

I'll help you on this one just for fun....

Elohim... can be singular, it can also be a plural word... what it can not EVER be is three in one, or three equals one... or anything like your trinity

So once again, as always... your trinity holds absolutely NO water

but i have no leg to stand on right?

LMAO!!

a reply to: Akragon

Elohim... can be singular, it can also be a plural word... what it can not EVER be is three in one, or three equals one... or anything like your trinity

Sure, whatever you say...

1 John 5:7

For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

a reply to: InhaleExhale

No, I don't see the the other poster making anything up, you on the other hand in this post I am quoting just did.

You're as laughable as Akragon. I posted the definition of Elohim since Akragon tried to say that Elohim in it's plural definition could have meant that it was God and the angels collaborating together to create man, but there is NO other verse in the Bible to even suggest that angels had anything to do with it. On the other hand, 1 John 5:7 explains who Elohim is, as I just showed above.

Genesis 1:26

26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

a reply to: Akragon

Uh, tell me again why Jesus said to baptize everyone in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost?!

On second thought, forget I asked since we already know that you have no idea!

Matthew 28:19

19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

originally posted by: Deetermined
a reply to: Akragon

Elohim... can be singular, it can also be a plural word... what it can not EVER be is three in one, or three equals one... or anything like your trinity

Sure, whatever you say...

1 John 5:7

For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

Ironically i mentioned a few pages back that there are TWO references to your trinity in the book... and you managed to bring both to the table... well done!

1 john 5:7 is a well known addition to the text... added by a trinitarian scribe. Called the johannine comma, we know it was added because it doesn't appear in any of the earliest texts we have

so much for that...

Uh, tell me again why Jesus said to baptize everyone in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost?!

On second thought, forget I asked since we already know that you have no idea!

LOL... actually i know all about it... fact is Jesus didn't say to baptise in the trinitarian fashion...

We know this because no one was baptized in that fashion in the entire New Testament... but there were recorded baptisms... And thats right, they wern't done in the trinitarian style

so apparently his followers decided not to do what their lord told them to do.... right... lol

Of course you wouldn't know that because as you've shown, you don't know your own book very well... again, typical

honestly the only thing thats laughable here is you... lol

1 john 5:7 wasn't even in the text, nor does it use Elohim so it certainly doesn't describe a word that isn't used

originally posted by: Deetermined
a reply to: whereislogic
...
Whereas, the verses in the Bible speak for themselves.

They do indeed. And they are still as relevant or applicable today as they were in Jesus' time. What he said below to the Jewish religious leaders and teachers might as well be said nowadays to any teacher in Trinitarianism, Binitarianism, Unitarianism, Judaism, Islam and so-called "Messianic Judaism" (and possibly some religious movements I didn't think of yet).

John 8:54,55

Jesus answered: “If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my Father who glorifies me, the one who you say is your God. 55 Yet you have not known him, but I know him. And if I said I do not know him, I would be like you, a liar. But I do know him and am observing his word.

From the earlier link to "Trinity: Reasoning" just in case anyone feels like bringing up the "I AM" argument.

John 8:58:

RS reads: “Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am [Greek, e·goʹ ei·miʹ].’” (NE, KJ, TEV, JB, NAB all read “I am,” some even using capital letters to convey the idea of a title. Thus they endeavor to connect the expression with Exodus 3:14, where, according to their rendering, God refers to himself by the title “I Am.” [whereislogic: see earlier comment I made about a more accurate rendering of Exodus 3:14, where "I Am" isn't an accurate rendering]) However, in NW the latter part of John 8:58 reads: “Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.” (The same idea is conveyed by the wording in AT, Mo, CBW, and SE.)

Which rendering agrees with the context? The question of the Jews (verse 57) to which Jesus was replying had to do with age, not identity. Jesus’ reply logically dealt with his age, the length of his existence. Interestingly, no effort is ever made to apply e·goʹ ei·miʹ as a title to the holy spirit.

Says A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research, by A. T. Robertson: “The verb [ei·miʹ] . . . Sometimes it does express existence as a predicate like any other verb, as in [e·goʹ ei·miʹ] (Jo. 8:58).”—Nashville, Tenn.; 1934, p. 394.

Jehovah—A God Worth Knowing

Jehovah God, the Author of the Bible, wants us to get to know him. The psalmist wrote: “That people may know that you, whose name is Jehovah, you alone are the Most High over all the earth.” He recognizes that it is in our own best interests for us to know him. “I, Jehovah, am your God, the One teaching you to benefit yourself.” How do we benefit from knowing Jehovah God, the Most High?—Psalm 83:18; Isaiah 48:17.

a reply to: Akragon

LOL... actually i know all about it... fact is Jesus didn't say to baptise in the trinitarian fashion...

We know this because no one was baptized in that fashion in the entire New Testament... but there were recorded baptisms... And thats right, they wern't done in the trinitarian style

so apparently his followers decided not to do what their lord told them to do.... right... lol

The fact that you even say this proves that you have no idea what you're talking about or understand anything that's written in the Bible.

Notice that the baptisms in both Acts 2 and Acts 10 mention both Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit for a reason. A reason that you will never understand. A truth that they knew, that you clearly do not.

a reply to: Deetermined

Right...

There is no trinity... they knew it

sadly you don't... but i couldn't care less what you believe

a reply to: whereislogic

However, in NW the latter part of John 8:58 reads: “Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.” (The same idea is conveyed by the wording in AT, Mo, CBW, and SE.)

Which rendering agrees with the context? The question of the Jews (verse 57) to which Jesus was replying had to do with age, not identity. Jesus’ reply logically dealt with his age, the length of his existence.

John 8:56-58

56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.

57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?

58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

Let's see, where and how did Jesus know and see Abraham?

If I AM, really translates into "I have been", where was it that he had been and how old was he?

Let me show you...

Genesis 18:33

33 And the Lord went his way, as soon as he had left communing with Abraham: and Abraham returned unto his place.

If you read all of Genesis 18, you will notice that three "men" come to visit Abraham, yet one of them he calls LORD. God the Father is the invisible Spirit, so how did he appear before Abraham as a man when we know that Jesus told everyone that no one but him had ever seen the Father? Could it be that Jesus did indeed know and see Abraham by communing with him as the physical manifestation of God? The answer is yes!

originally posted by: Deetermined
a reply to: whereislogic

...yet one of them he calls LORD....

There you go again, quoting a bible translation that swaps out "Jehovah" with "the LORD" (or "the Lord") so your argument works a little better. Either way, the text does not say that Jehovah appeared "before Abraham as a man".

Jeremiah 23:27,28

They intend to make my people forget my name by the dreams they relate to one another, just as their fathers forgot my name because of Baʹal. 28 Let the prophet who has a dream relate the dream, but the one who has my word should speak my word truthfully.”

“What does the straw have in common with the grain?” declares Jehovah.

You are not speaking Jehovah's word (as recorded in the bible) truthfully.

Jesus Christ: Insight, Volume 2

What did Thomas mean when he said to Jesus, “My Lord and my God”?

On the occasion of Jesus’ appearance to Thomas and the other apostles, which had removed Thomas’ doubts of Jesus’ resurrection, the now-convinced Thomas exclaimed to Jesus: “My Lord and my God! [literally, “The Lord of me and the God (ho The·osʹ) of me!”].” (Joh 20:24-29) Some scholars have viewed this expression as an exclamation of astonishment spoken to Jesus but actually directed to God, his Father. However, others claim the original Greek requires that the words be viewed as being directed to Jesus. Even if this is so, the expression “My Lord and my God” would still have to harmonize with the rest of the inspired Scriptures. Since the record shows that Jesus had previously sent his disciples the message, “I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God,” there is no reason for believing that Thomas thought Jesus was the Almighty God. (Joh 20:17) John himself, after recounting Thomas’ encounter with the resurrected Jesus, says of this and similar accounts: “But these have been written down that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God, and that, because of believing, you may have life by means of his name.”—Joh 20:30, 31.

So, Thomas may have addressed Jesus as “my God” in the sense of Jesus’ being “a god” though not the Almighty God, not “the only true God,” to whom Thomas had often heard Jesus pray. (Joh 17:1-3) Or he may have addressed Jesus as “my God” in a way similar to expressions made by his forefathers, recorded in the Hebrew Scriptures, with which Thomas was familiar. On various occasions when individuals were visited or addressed by an angelic messenger of Jehovah, the individuals, or at times the Bible writer setting out the account, responded to or spoke of that angelic messenger as though he were Jehovah God. (Compare Ge 16:7-11, 13; 18:1-5, 22-33; 32:24-30; Jg 6:11-15; 13:20-22.) This was because the angelic messenger was acting for Jehovah as his representative, speaking in his name, perhaps using the first person singular pronoun, and even saying, “I am the true God.” (Ge 31:11-13; Jg 2:1-5) Thomas may therefore have spoken to Jesus as “my God” in this sense, acknowledging or confessing Jesus as the representative and spokesman of the true God. Whatever the case, it is certain that Thomas’ words do not contradict the clear statement he himself had heard Jesus make, namely, “The Father is greater than I am.”—Joh 14:28.

Judges 6

11 Later Jehovah’s angel came and sat under the big tree that was in Ophʹrah, which belonged to Joʹash the Abi-ezʹrite. His son Gidʹe·on was beating out wheat in the winepress in order to hide it from Midʹi·an. 12 Jehovah’s angel appeared to him and said: “Jehovah is with you, you mighty warrior.” 13 At this Gidʹe·on said to him: “Pardon me, my lord, but if Jehovah is with us, why has all of this come upon us? Where are all his wonderful acts that our fathers related to us, saying, ‘Did Jehovah not bring us up out of Egypt?’ Now Jehovah has deserted us and given us into Midʹi·an’s hand.” 14 Jehovah faced him and said: “Go with the strength you have, and you will save Israel out of Midʹi·an’s hand. Is it not I who send you?” 15 Gidʹe·on answered him: “Pardon me, Jehovah. How can I save Israel? Look! My clan is the least in Ma·nasʹseh, and I am the most insignificant in my father’s house.” 16 But Jehovah said to him: “Because I will be with you, you will strike down Midʹi·an as if they were one man.”

Using your logic consistently (which Trinitarians will avoid like the plague cause it exposes the flaws in their argumentation), "Jehovah's angel" must therefore be Jehovah with the way things are phrased there. Of course that's not what the bible teaches. On various occasions when individuals were visited or addressed by an angelic messenger of Jehovah, the individuals, or at times the Bible writer setting out the account, responded to or spoke of that angelic messenger as though he were Jehovah God. This was because the angelic messenger was acting for Jehovah as his representative, speaking in his name. As is the case at Genesis 18, 16, 32 and Judges 6. And the reason there's no mention made of the number 3 in those other locations is why they are hardly ever brought up by Trinitarians making this argument, or that's one of the reasons, doesn't work as well for their theosophies. And perhaps another reason could be that Judges 6 for example spells out that it wasn't actually Jehovah, but Jehovah's angel, unlike Genesis 18 where that isn't spelled out (making it easier to twist and obscure and keep people in figurative darkness so they can't see very clearly what's going on here).

Angels are allowed to materialize in human form if they have been specifically instructed to do so by Jehovah, as happened in the story with Lot.

Genesis 19:
12 Then the men said to Lot: ....
15 As dawn was breaking, the angels became urgent with Lot, saying: ...

Same ones referred to as "the men" and then later as "the angels", showing that these were angels that had materialized with a human body.

18 Then Lot said to them: “Not there, please, Jehovah!

Lot still responding to those angels that were acting as representatives for Jehovah. The video I shared about "Jesus is not the Alpha and the Omega" has another example from Revelation.

a reply to: whereislogic

Either way, the text does not say that Jehovah appeared "before Abraham as a man".

This is going to be the last time I respond to you and Akragon's nonsense, but here are the verses for themselves...

Genesis 18:1-3

18 And the Lord appeared unto him in the plains of Mamre: and he sat in the tent door in the heat of the day;

2 And he lift up his eyes and looked, and, lo, three men stood by him: and when he saw them, he ran to meet them from the tent door, and bowed himself toward the ground,

3 And said, My Lord, if now I have found favour in thy sight, pass not away, I pray thee, from thy servant:

a reply to: Deetermined

because... three verses explain the lack of trintarian doctrine

well done.. lol

a reply to: Akragon

LOL! Do you ever think about what you post before you post it? I love it when you embarrass yourself.

The whole chapter of Genesis 18 explains the interaction between Abraham and the Lord disguised as a man, the first three verses only drive home the point that men appeared before Abraham and he called one of them Lord. This is because Jesus is the physical manifestation of God and was capable of appearing to people however he wished. This is precisely why Jesus said in the New Testament that he knew Abraham.

a reply to: Deetermined

You're as laughable as Akragon.

thank you.

I posted the definition of Elohim since Akragon tried to say that Elohim in it's plural definition could have meant that it was God and the angels collaborating together to create man

let me say it again, you seem to have trouble reading the words, i will leave a few spaces so its easy to see them



No one said God Collaborated with angels to create humans.

let me quote my questions again

Did you just misinterpret what was said or did you purposely make it up and then accuse another of making stuff up?

so is it one or the other?

a reply to: InhaleExhale

Do I have to find it for you? Here's what Akragon said...

Even your example from Genesis... a flawed argument

"God" was speaking to his angels not Jesus as Christians like to believe... a quick study on the word Elohim, and what it can and CAN NOT be solves that problem right away

God WAS NOT speaking to his angels when he said...

Genesis 1:26

26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness:...

The word "US" does NOT include angels when it came to creating man in God's image.

Do you finally get it? Akragon was most certainly trying to claim that "US" had to be angels and not God/Jesus/Holy Spirit.

a reply to: Deetermined
Still Jehovah didn't appear "before Abraham as a man" (quoting from your interpretation, your eisegesis). Jehovah figuratively appeared before Abraham by way of an angelic representative just like the other occasions where that is more clearly spelled out in the text (or harder to twist and talk past with half-truths). The heaven of the heavens can't even contain Jehovah, and you want to argue Jehovah came down to earth as a man. Let Jehovah's word, the bible, settle the matter...

1 Kings 8:27

27 “But will God really dwell on the earth? Look! The heavens, yes, the heaven of the heavens, cannot contain you; how much less, then, this house that I have built!

And your logic regarding Gen.1:26 leads to God talking to himself as if he's some kind of schizophrenic, saying "us". He was talking to Jesus in his prehuman existence (so also prior to being given the name Jesus), clearly talking to someone else, that's why his grammar makes perfect sense: "us".

Jesus Christ: Insight, Volume 2

Prehuman Existence. The person who became known as Jesus Christ did not begin life here on earth. He himself spoke of his prehuman heavenly life. (Joh 3:13; 6:38, 62; 8:23, 42, 58) John 1:1, 2 gives the heavenly name of the one who became Jesus, saying: “In the beginning the Word [Gr., Loʹgos] was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god [“was divine,” AT; Mo; or “of divine being,” Böhmer; Stage (both German)]. This one was in the beginning with God.” Since Jehovah is eternal and had no beginning (Ps 90:2; Re 15:3), the Word’s being with God from “the beginning” must here refer to the beginning of Jehovah’s creative works. This is confirmed by other texts identifying Jesus as “the firstborn of all creation,” “the beginning of the creation by God.” (Col 1:15; Re 1:1; 3:14) Thus the Scriptures identify the Word (Jesus in his prehuman existence) as God’s first creation, his firstborn Son.

That Jehovah was truly the Father or Life-Giver to this firstborn Son and, hence, that this Son was actually a creature of God is evident from Jesus’ own statements. He pointed to God as the Source of his life, saying, “I live because of the Father.” According to the context, this meant that his life resulted from or was caused by his Father, even as the gaining of life by dying men would result from their faith in Jesus’ ransom sacrifice.—Joh 6:56, 57.

If the estimates of modern-day scientists as to the age of the physical universe are anywhere near correct, Jesus’ existence as a spirit creature began thousands of millions of years prior to the creation of the first human. (Compare Mic 5:2.) This firstborn spirit Son was used by his Father in the creation of all other things. (Joh 1:3; Col 1:16, 17) This would include the millions of other spirit sons of Jehovah God’s heavenly family (Da 7:9, 10; Re 5:11), as well as the physical universe and the creatures originally produced within it. Logically, it was to this firstborn Son that Jehovah said: “Let us make man in our image, according to our likeness.” (Ge 1:26) All these other created things were not only created “through him” but also “for him,” as God’s Firstborn and the “heir of all things.”—Col 1:16; Heb 1:2.

Not a co-Creator. The Son’s share in the creative works, however, did not make him a co-Creator with his Father. The power for creation came from God through his holy spirit, or active force. (Ge 1:2; Ps 33:6) And since Jehovah is the Source of all life, all animate creation, visible and invisible, owes its life to him. (Ps 36:9) Rather than a co-Creator, then, the Son was the agent or instrumentality through whom Jehovah, the Creator, worked. Jesus himself credited God with the creation, as do all the Scriptures.—Mt 19:4-6; see CREATION.

Throughout the Scriptures Jehovah God is identified as the Creator. He is “the Creator of the heavens, . . . the Former of the earth and the Maker of it.” (Isa 45:18) He is “the Former of the mountains and the Creator of the wind” (Am 4:13) and is “the One who made the heaven and the earth and the sea and all the things in them.” (Ac 4:24; 14:15; 17:24) “God . . . created all things.” (Eph 3:9) Jesus Christ recognized Jehovah as the One who created humans, making them male and female. (Mt 19:4; Mr 10:6) Hence, Jehovah is fittingly and uniquely called “the Creator.”—Isa 40:28.

It is because of God’s will that all things “existed and were created.” (Re 4:11) Jehovah, who has existed for all time, was alone before creation had a beginning.—Ps 90:1, 2; 1Ti 1:17.
...
Jehovah’s first creation was his “only-begotten Son” (Joh 3:16), “the beginning of the creation by God.” (Re 3:14) This one, “the firstborn of all creation,” was used by Jehovah in creating all other things, those in the heavens and those upon the earth, “the things visible and the things invisible.” (Col 1:15-17) John’s inspired testimony concerning this Son, the Word, is that “all things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence,” and the apostle identifies the Word as Jesus Christ, who had become flesh. (Joh 1:1-4, 10, 14, 17) As wisdom personified, this One is represented as saying, “Jehovah himself produced me as the beginning of his way,” and he tells of his association with God the Creator as Jehovah’s “master worker.” (Pr 8:12, 22-31) In view of the close association of Jehovah and his only-begotten Son in creative activity and because that Son is “the image of the invisible God” (Col 1:15; 2Co 4:4), it was evidently to His only-begotten Son and master worker that Jehovah spoke in saying, “Let us make man in our image.”—Ge 1:26.

After creating his only-begotten Son, Jehovah used him in bringing the heavenly angels into existence. This preceded the founding of the earth, as Jehovah revealed when questioning Job and asking him: “Where did you happen to be when I founded the earth . . . when the morning stars joyfully cried out together, and all the sons of God began shouting in applause?” (Job 38:4-7) It was after the creation of these heavenly spirit creatures that the material heavens and earth and all elements were made, or brought into existence. And, since Jehovah is the one primarily responsible for all this creative work, it is ascribed to him.—Ne 9:6; Ps 136:1, 5-9.

The Paradox of Tertullian

Tertullian viewed the Son as subordinate to the Father. However, in his attempt to counteract modalism, he went “beyond the things that are written.” (1 Corinthians 4:6) As Tertullian erroneously sought to prove the divinity of Jesus by means of another theory, he coined the formula “one substance in three persons.” Using this concept, he attempted to show that God, his Son, and the holy spirit were three distinct persons existing in one divine substance. Tertullian thus became the first to apply the Latin form of the word “trinity” to the Father, the Son, and the holy spirit.

Your spiritual father Tertullian, whose writings Deathslayer referred to as "inspired":

In the beginning God made for Himself a Son. ... For before all things God was alone... - Tertullian, Against Praxeas, chapter V

originally posted by: Deetermined
a reply to: Akragon

LOL! Do you ever think about what you post before you post it? I love it when you embarrass yourself.

The whole chapter of Genesis 18 explains the interaction between Abraham and the Lord disguised as a man, the first three verses only drive home the point that men appeared before Abraham and he called one of them Lord. This is because Jesus is the physical manifestation of God and was capable of appearing to people however he wished. This is precisely why Jesus said in the New Testament that he knew Abraham.

ah... do you have any idea how many people were called "lord" in the bible.... probably not

i'll spell it out for you again... as if it helps anything

Elohim isn't a triune word... in fact it CAN NOT be anything resembling a trinity

the Hebrew God is ONE entity... not three in one, not three equals one...

Jesus was jewish... Thus he did not recognize a triune God... Nor did ANY of his followers

the messiah wasn't supposed to be God/man... In fact Jesus didn't even qualify to be the jewish messiah

and theres ZERO evidence within the book that Jesus was God... in fact HE had a God and said he would be returning to him...

He attributed EVERYTHING he did to his Father/God, and claimed nothing for himself

And even said God gave him all the power of heaven and earth

Your trinity is baseless.... a house built on sand as HE said

You believe in a man made Creation of God which has zero backing in the bible... it all comes years later by man made councils turned into church tradition... NOT biblical doctrines

a reply to: Akragon

ah... do you have any idea how many people were called "lord" in the bible.... probably not

Yes, but they aren't generally spelled with an uppercase "L" or are they bowed to. The angels would always reprimand anyone who tried to bow to them, unless of course, Jesus was with them.

Elohim isn't a triune word... in fact it CAN NOT be anything resembling a trinity

Elohim is both singular and plural. When anything is plural, such as "cookies", it doesn't tell you exactly how many cookies we're talking about, does it? You just know that the plural shows that there are more than one.

In the instance of the Bible, we know that there are three in one based on:

1 John 5:7 - For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

Matthew 28:19 - Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

John 14:16-18 - 16 And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;

17 Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.

18 I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.

Above, Jesus says that the Father will give them another Comforter (Holy Spirit), but then follows it up in verse 18 my admitting that he is the one who will actually be coming to them in the form of the Spirit.

Once again Jesus stresses to his disciples that they know the Holy Spirit, but the world doesn't. It's not any different today for those who do not have the Holy Spirit dwelling in them giving them ears to hear.

Mark 4:9 - And he said unto them, He that hath ears to hear, let him hear.

Matthew 11:15 - He that hath ears to hear, let him hear.

Jesus spoke in parables for a reason.