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originally posted by: undo
the son who went to egypt, was ham -- and ham is the etymology for khem (egypt). i think he (actually "they", as the m designates ham is a plural word) was returning to egypt, not going there for the first time.
elohim and alulim are also plural words (designated by the "m" at the end), so how do we get a singular creator? easy. a singular adam/atum/alulim/elohim in the royal "we" voice, created the plural adam, males and females, from multiple adam/atum/elohim/alulim templates.
Hebrew distinguishes grammatical number by endings in nouns, verbs and adjectives. A grammatical phenomenon occurs with a small number of Hebrew nouns, such as elohim "great god" and behemoth "giant beast" where a grammatically redundant plural ending -im (usually masculine plural) or -oth (usually feminine plural) is attached to a noun, but the noun nevertheless continues to take singular verbs and adjectives.
originally posted by: Utnapisjtim
a reply to: undo
Please notice the following: The first words of Genesis in Hebrew transliterated into English; "Bereshyt bara Elohim at..." To illustrate what I am addressing by saying Elohim is "treated as singular grammatically", I will translate it in present tense rather than the past tense to utilise a similar function in English: "In the beginning Elohim creates..." Now, pay close attention to the -s suffix in 'creates' there. Similarly the verb for 'create' in Hebrew here, 'Bara' is singular, and not plural as would be the case if Elohim was merely a plural word. In Hebrew the verb 'bara' is only used with God as the subject, and is always singular, because the proper name Elohim is 'pluralis excellentiae' making it singular eventhough it is a plural word:
en.wikipedia.org...
Hebrew distinguishes grammatical number by endings in nouns, verbs and adjectives. A grammatical phenomenon occurs with a small number of Hebrew nouns, such as elohim "great god" and behemoth "giant beast" where a grammatically redundant plural ending -im (usually masculine plural) or -oth (usually feminine plural) is attached to a noun, but the noun nevertheless continues to take singular verbs and adjectives.
originally posted by: undo
a reply to: TheJourney
there must be more than one way to indicate plural with just "m" then because adam is a plural.
originally posted by: undo
if you haven't read it yet, get a gander
originally posted by: undo
notice how many of the gods of egypt are often said to be self-created?
originally posted by: TheJourney
originally posted by: Utnapisjtim
a reply to: undo
Please notice the following: The first words of Genesis in Hebrew transliterated into English; "Bereshyt bara Elohim at..." To illustrate what I am addressing by saying Elohim is "treated as singular grammatically", I will translate it in present tense rather than the past tense to utilise a similar function in English: "In the beginning Elohim creates..." Now, pay close attention to the -s suffix in 'creates' there. Similarly the verb for 'create' in Hebrew here, 'Bara' is singular, and not plural as would be the case if Elohim was merely a plural word. In Hebrew the verb 'bara' is only used with God as the subject, and is always singular, because the proper name Elohim is 'pluralis excellentiae' making it singular eventhough it is a plural word:
en.wikipedia.org...
Hebrew distinguishes grammatical number by endings in nouns, verbs and adjectives. A grammatical phenomenon occurs with a small number of Hebrew nouns, such as elohim "great god" and behemoth "giant beast" where a grammatically redundant plural ending -im (usually masculine plural) or -oth (usually feminine plural) is attached to a noun, but the noun nevertheless continues to take singular verbs and adjectives.
So what would bara be if plural was indicated? I know a bit of Hebrew, from when I studied it before when I wanted to convert to Judaism. But, I don't know. Do you?