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originally posted by: AfterInfinity
originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: charles1952
Its not blindness Sir Charles... Its misunderstanding the sly trick question...
He's looking for a verse that commands Christians to kill that can be found in the bible...
A book which consists of two "testaments" the OLD and the NEW...
HE will reject anything that tells followers of the OLD to kill... yet still claim it is Gods word, but he wasn't talking to Christians...
Going by the NEW a verse can not be found obviously... but the evidence is abundant in the OLD...
SO either God changed his attitude with the introduction of Jesus... OR The OT isn't God...
Yet the OP also claims the OT God is the same as Jesus... which simply doesn't make sense all things considered...
The problem is the OP claims Both the OLD and the NEW are Gods words... and the books says God doesn't change...
SO... IF this is the same God, he does change.... OR... He is still a ruthless tyrant, which we can find no evidence of in the NT... aside from revelation perhaps...
Don't forget the fact that these old scriptures and old instructions are still good enough to prohibit abortion and gay marriage in the 20th century, but apparently don't count in this setting.
OK, fine. We've come to the point where the anti-OP position is that there are many verses in the Old Testament that command modern, western Christians to rape, pillage, kill and plunder.
Going by the NEW a verse can not be found obviously... but the evidence is abundant in the OLD...
But, in a spirit of fairness, I'll let you offer your proof that God cannot issue different instructions to different people in different situations.
Prove that, pick out your OT verse, THEN we'll have something to talk about.
originally posted by: Akragon
His followers even asked him once if he was going to rain fire down on people.... And he was pissed at the very idea...
Widespread worship of the god Baal plagues Israel, and Gideon’s son Abimelech serves a violent three-year reign as Israel’s king. His tyrannical reign ends when a woman throws a millstone on Abimelech’s head. Pressured by the Philistines from the east and the Ammonites from the west, Israel turns from its idol worship and God selects a new judge, Jephthah, the son of a prostitute, to challenge the Ammonites.
Jephthah promises God that, if he is victorious, he will sacrifice to God the first thing that comes out of his house the day he returns from battle. Upon devastating the Ammonites, Jephthah returns home to see his daughter emerge from his house, dancing, to greet him. Jephthah laments his promise, but his daughter encourages him to remain faithful to God, and Jephthah kills the virgin girl.
www.sparknotes.com...
He's not making any sort of argument in the OP, any more than saying "Fill my tank" to a gas station attendant is an argument. He's simply asking us to find a verse which meets a few conditions.
The problem here brother is that there is a logical fallacy in this entire argument of the OPs
The OT is not a Christian book... Christ was not incarnate before the NT...
The OT is accepted by Christianity because the roots of that religion stem from Judaism...
Moreover... the OT is found between the same cover as the NT...
All right, let me back up. Pick out your verse, Old or New Testament, I don't care. If it's Old Testament, it's probable (although not certain) that it was given to a specific people at a specific time in a particular situation.
I don't need the OT to prove that.... God is love... Correct?
Find a verse in the OT that proves this God is love... It may be his/her/its claim, but where is the evidence of it?
Please allow me to take the radical step of saying, that for this post, I will accept that your contention is entirely correct, and logically proven beyond doubt. OK?
My questions now are "So what?" and "Why are you agreeing with the OP so quickly?"
Think of how much frustration would have been saved if the first response would have been "You're right. There isn't any verse in the Bible that orders modern Christians to use violence. Now that I've said that, it does not logically, or even reasonably, follow that the Gods of the two Testaments are identical." (I would have agreed that it doesn't follow.)
What would have been the risk in that? Why have we spent nearly twenty pages in the two threads coming to that point? We could have ended the whole mess in one page.
originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: charles1952
As in many cases the OP decided to make a number of threads on the same subject, as if one wasn't enough to cover what he is trying to get at...
Also there is a literally 10 other threads on this subject... claiming the god of the OT is evil... I have a few myself actually...
its an ongoing debate but the OP decided to announce that he would renounce his faith which would obviously attract people who have read the OT... and possibly compared it with the NT
Admittedly there is nothing in the NT that tells Christians to kill or any of the other things mentioned... which essentially eliminates this discussion, but... That is not the OP's motive...
Hes looking to prove that the Father of Jesus IS in fact the god of the OT... much like a few other people, which can not be proven... Theres simply no evidence of the two being the same...
The root of all these discussions or arguments is the same...
Jesus VS The Imposter
and that was almost two years ago.... but it started 2000 years ago, and it was hidden from us until recently...
originally posted by: charles1952
Reply to whomever.
I have reached understanding about this thread. It consists of three parts.
1.) The OP was absolutely correct, in that he believed no one could find a verse commanding modern western Christians to kill, rape, pillage or burn. Akragon, that paragon of critical and questioning thought agrees, as do I.
2.) The OP probably had a motive in mind when he wrote the thread. We may have several good ideas of what it was, but we can't know for sure, until we ask the OP and get an answer.
3.) The motive which is being attributed to him is being attacked. It may very well be that his motive is flawed.
May I ask if it is common for ATS posters to dismiss the words of an OP in order to attack what we believe his motive is?
If the accuracy of the statements in an OP can be attacked because of who the poster is, I would strongly recommend those believers to click on my link to Bulverism in my signature.
Akragon honestly said, in effect, "We can't find the verse, the OP is right. Now we should consider what he intends to do in the future with this fact."
I'm not able to deal with the problems that we actually have, but if you want to add to those the problems which might occur in the future, feel free.