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... A tradition cannot make an historical claim and then refuse to have it evaluated by history. ... Truth should not frighten one whose faith is firm. ... Knowing the Exodus is not a literal historical accounting does not ultimately change our connection to each other or to God. Faith should not rest on splitting seas. ...
Was there a mass Exodus of Jewish slaves out of Egypt? There is no record of any such thing ever happening, and the simple reason is that there is no time in which it could have happened. No Egyptian record contains a single reference to anything in Exodus; and by the time there were enough Jews living in Egypt to constitute an Exodus, the time of the pyramids was long over. And Pharaoh Ramesses can be let off the hook as well: With apologies to Yul Brynner, no documentary or archaeological evidence links any of the Pharaohs bearing this name with plagues or Jewish slaves or edicts to kill babies. Indeed, the earliest, Ramesses I, wasn't even born until more than a thousand years after the Great Pyramid was completed. His grandson, the great Ramesses II, lived even later
Surveys of ancient settlements--pottery remains and so forth--make it clear that there simply was no great influx of people around the time of the Exodus (given variously as between 1500-1200 BCE). Therefore, not the wandering, but the arrival alerts us to the fact that the biblical Exodus is not a literal depiction. In Israel at that time, there was no sudden change in the kind or the volume of pottery being made. (If people suddenly arrived after hundreds of years in Egypt, their cups and dishes would look very different from native Canaanites'.) There was no population explosion. Most archeologists conclude that the Israelites lived largely in Canaan over generations, instead of leaving and then immigrating back to Canaan.
"The actual evidence concerning the Exodus resembles the evidence for the unicorn," writes Baruch Halpern of Pennsylvania State University.
"The Book of Joshua is of no historical value as far as the process of settlement is concerned," contends Volkmar Fritz, director of the German Protestant Institute of Archaeology in Jerusalem.
"The period of the patriarchs, exodus, conquest, or judges as devised by the writers of Scriptures ... never existed," declares Robert Coote of San Francisco Theological Seminary.
The Genesis and Exodus accounts are "a fiction written around the middle of the first millennium," states Niels Peter Lemche at the University of Copenhagen, and, "The David of the Bible, David the king, is not a historical figure."
Exodus mentions the Philistines, a people that didn’t exist yet. Cities like Ezion Geber, Arad, Heshbon and Kadesh Barnea weren’t founded yet. Other cities mentioned in Exodus and Numbers, like Ai and Jericho, were abandoned ruins for centuries by the time the Israelites arrived.
“The border between Canaan and Egypt was thus closely controlled,” the scholars write. “If a great mass of fleeing Israelites had passed through the border fortifications of the pharaonic regime, a record should exist.” It doesn’t, despite “abundant Egyptian sources” from the period in question. ...
Although the Bible gives the impression that once the Israelites had safely crossed the Sea of Reeds, they were beyond the reach of the anonymous pharaoh’s decimated armies, this isn’t true. Egypt controlled the Sinai Peninsula – and patrolled Canaan itself, as far north and east as the Euphrates River in Syria...
Then there’s this kicker: In the specific places where the Bible discusses Israelite encampments – Kadesh-barnea, where Israel stayed for 38 years, according to Numbers 34, and Ezion-geber on the Gulf of Aqaba – there is not only no evidence from the 13th century, there is evidence from a different time period: the seventh century. “All the major places that play a role in the wandering of the Israelites were inhabited in the seventh century; in some cases they were occupied only at that time”. That includes Edom, Ammon and Moab. The exodus story describes these nations as trying to stop Israel from getting to Canaan. Yet these areas were essentially uninhabited in the 13th century. They were full-fledged nation-states – and enemies of Israel, at that – in the seventh.
... A tradition cannot make an historical claim and then refuse to have it evaluated by history. ... Truth should not frighten one whose faith is firm. ...
tinfoilman
But where did they come from? They didn't write the Bible in Egyptian because they weren't from Egypt? But where did their language originate?
why would a people completely destroy their real history and what really happened and write up something completely fake? This is abnormal behavior and makes me want to know why.
Also many times claims like this get made you'll have people saying things like there's no record of them being in Egypt! Yeah there is, their own oral record passed to what their Bible says. It has a record of them being in Egypt.
Jordan River
Im sure it happened. There was the library of alexandria that burn down a lot of important documents. As well as kingdoms burning their own documents to avoid embarrassment
FlyersFan
Were the Jews ever mass enslaved in Egypt? Did two million of them escape slavery in Egypt and live in the desert for 40 years before invading 'The Promised Land' ?? Did Moses really celebrate Passover with the slaves in Egypt ?? More and more the answer looks like ... NO.
Extreme thinking - Exodus didn't happen
- No records of mass numbers of Hebrew slaves in Egypt.
- No records of mass deaths (10th Plague) in Egypt.
- Hebrews entered Canaan (owned by Egypt) in a genocidal rage but no record of this in Egypt.
- The Merneptah Stele (stone carving) 1207BC says Hebrews in Canaan were 'a tribe' .. not a nation.
- The claim is that the Torah was written by Moses himself in 1400 BC but the Hebrews were illiterate. IF Moses wrote it, it would have been in Egyptian hieroglyphics which he would have been schooled in.edit on 11/6/2013 by FlyersFan because: spelling/typo
Proto-Sinaitic is hypothesized to be an intermediate step between Egyptian hieroglyphs and the Phoenician alphabet. If this is the case, Proto-Sinaitic may be the first alphabet. According to the alphabet theory, the alphabet began with Proto-Sinaitic at the end of the Middle Bronze Age and split into the South Arabian script and the Proto-Canaanite script in the Late Bronze Age. The Proto-Canaanite script would then have evolved into Phoenician proper by 1100 BCE.[5] The theory centers on the idea that only the graphic form of the Proto-Sinaitic characters derive from Egyptian hieroglyphs, and that they were given the sound value of the first consonant of the Semitic translation of the hieroglyph. (Using a character for the first sound of its name is the acrophonic principle.) For example, the hieroglyph for pr "house" (a rectangle partially open along one side, "O1" in Gardiner's sign list) was adopted to write Semitic /b/, after the first consonant of baytu, the Semitic word for "house".[1] According to the alphabet hypothesis, the shapes of the letters would have evolved from Proto-Sinaitic forms into Phoenician forms, but the names of the letters would have remained the same. Below is a table showing selected Proto-Sinaitic signs and the proposed correspondences with Phoenician letters. Also shown are the sound values, names, and descendants of the Phoenician letters.
Proto-Sinaitic, also known as Proto-Canaanite, was the first consonantal alphabet. Even a quick and cursory glance at its inventory of signs makes it very apparent of this script's Egyptian origin. Originally it was thought that at round 1700 BCE, Sinai was conquered by Egypt, and the local West-Semitic population were influenced by Egyptian culture and adopted a small number of hieroglyphic signs (about 30) to write their own language. However, recent discoveries in Egypt itself have compounded this scenario. Inscriptions dating to 1900 BCE written in what appears to be Proto-Sinaitic were found in Upper Egypt, and nearby Egyptian texts speak of the presence of Semitic-speaking people living in Egypt.[/ex]
Semitics In Egypt
Anyway what were you saying?
tinfoilman
The idea that would Moses would have been schooled in Egyptian only is probably a misconception. There's no reason to believe that..
The historian Philo says, that Moses was initiated by the Egyptian priests in the philosophy of symbols and hieroglyphics, as well as in the mysteries of the sacred animals. This testimony is confirmed by numerous others.He would have been taught the diplomatic languages, mathematics, astronomy, and was probably trained for service as a military leader.
Not only did Moses receive the best education available at the time but also all the advantages of Egyptian wealth and status. This was a unique preparation as a leader. He would be able to stand in front of Pharaoh, having been educated in Egyptian ways, but he would also stand for his people
OF COURSE he would have been schooled in Egyptian
FlyersFan
tinfoilman
The idea that would Moses would have been schooled in Egyptian only is probably a misconception. There's no reason to believe that..
According to the Exodus story - Moses was a prince of Egypt. OF COURSE he would have been schooled in Egyptian. Egypt had great schools for the upper crust. And him being a Prince of Egypt ...well they weren't going to have a prince running around who was unschooled. That would have been unacceptable. He had to rule (or help rule) the reigning country in the known world.
Acts 7:22 - Moses was educated in all the wisdom of the Egyptians and was powerful in speech and action
tinfoilman
reply to post by FlyersFan
OF COURSE he would have been schooled in Egyptian
I said Egyptian ONLY. If he was raised by the royal family and they did have Israelite slaves there's no reason to think Moses wouldn't have learned BOTH languages since you want to be able to tell your slaves what to do right?
What I'm telling you is that during this time, according to the Bible, if both languages were spoken in Egypt at the time then Moses would have probably learned both languages. I don't know where you get this idea that Moses could have only learned Egyptian.
tinfoilman
According to the story anyway, the Israelite weren't slaves in Egypt for much of the time.
And as for the Egyptian financial records? Well let's take a look? Usually in times like this I see people making claims like so and so kept perfect records! We just don't have them!
It is no exaggeration to say that we owe most of our knowledge of ancient Egypt to the work of her scribes. The ancient Egyptians covered their temples and tombs with hieroglyphs, but they also employed scribes to record everything from the stocks held in the stores for workers, the proceedings in court, magic spells, wills and other legal contracts, medical procedures, tax records and genealogies. Scribes were central to the functioning of centralised administration, the army and the priesthood and in truth very little happened in ancient Egypt which did not involve a scribe in some manner.
Like the Bible's Moses, Sargon may have been a Semite rather than a Sumerian. A story about Sargon's youth sounds like the Moses infancy story. The baby Sargon, nestled in a reed basket sealed with bitumen, was placed in the Euphrates River. The basket floated until it was rescued by a gardener or date grower. In this capacity he worked for the king of Kish, Ur-Zababa until he rose in the ranks to become the king's cupbearer....
Then the ambitious king of the Mesopotamian city-state of Umma (and beyond), Lugulzaggesi, invaded Kish from the south. King Ur-Zababa king fled and Sargon led forces against Lugulzaggesi's Sumerian mini-empire. Lugulzaggesi had to leave Kish to face Sargon, who proved unstoppable. After Lugulzaggesi surrendered, Sargon named himself king of Kish and then marched south to conquer Mesopotamian land to the Persian Gulf.
tinfoilman
I don't know where you get this idea that Moses could have only learned Egyptian.