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Protestant disinfo debunked-Catholics are also Christians

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posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 08:12 AM
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Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by lonewolf19792000
 


I'll let you argue with all of your sacred name friends which guess name to use. For me I already know His name is Jesus. The same name that has been preached for around 2000 years, was a Hebrew name over a thousand of years previous that, and means EhJeh saves.


There's only one name to be baptized in, that's the only name I need to know, yet the scriptures do not originate in English. Wether you baptize in the name of Yeshua, Jesus or Iesous. The issue is, who thinks the Lord is a moron? Does he not rightly say he searches the hearts and minds? Can he not call you to repentance without saying one word? What then, is there to argue about?


edit on 28-7-2013 by lonewolf19792000 because: (no reason given)



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 10:48 AM
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Originally posted by lonewolf19792000

Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by lonewolf19792000
 


I'll let you argue with all of your sacred name friends which guess name to use. For me I already know His name is Jesus. The same name that has been preached for around 2000 years, was a Hebrew name over a thousand of years previous that, and means EhJeh saves.


There's only one name to be baptized in, that's the only name I need to know, yet the scriptures do not originate in English. Wether you baptize in the name of Yeshua, Jesus or Iesous. The issue is, who thinks the Lord is a moron? Does he not rightly say he searches the hearts and minds? Can he not call you to repentance without saying one word? What then, is there to argue about?


edit on 28-7-2013 by lonewolf19792000 because: (no reason given)


Yeshua is not a name for Christ. Jesus and Jesous are the same name.



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 03:02 PM
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Originally posted by truejew
Yeshua is not a name for Christ.

It's too bad that, by your own teachings, you will be condemned. Jesus' Hebrew name was Yeshua, not "gee-zus", which was not used to refer to him until centuries after the resurrection.

Unless you get yourself re-baptized in the name of Yeshua, you'd best pray that it makes no difference what name is used in your baptism, because by your own teaching, you are an unbaptized heathen who will not be saved.



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 03:45 PM
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Originally posted by adjensen

Originally posted by truejew
Yeshua is not a name for Christ.

It's too bad that, by your own teachings, you will be condemned. Jesus' Hebrew name was Yeshua, not "gee-zus", which was not used to refer to him until centuries after the resurrection.

Unless you get yourself re-baptized in the name of Yeshua, you'd best pray that it makes no difference what name is used in your baptism, because by your own teaching, you are an unbaptized heathen who will not be saved.


Again, Yeshua (God calls out), is not a name for Christ. Jeshas (God saves) is the correct name and is the same name as Jesus/Jesous. The fact also remains that Jesus spoke Greek and would have used the Greek spelling "Iesous" which is pronunced "Jesous". The name Jesus as it is spelt in Greek, is found in the Septuagint and Greek New Testament. Jesus never used the Aramaic name of Yeshua.



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 04:06 PM
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Originally posted by truejew
The fact also remains that Jesus spoke Greek

There is no evidence for this.


Jesus never used the Aramaic name of Yeshua.

There is also no evidence for this.

Making up arbitrary facts to support one's opinion is not rational.



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 05:45 PM
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reply to post by adjensen
 


And Yeshua is Hebrew, not Aramaic.



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 07:06 PM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by adjensen
 


And Yeshua is Hebrew, not Aramaic.


There is no "Hebrew" language, only Paleo-Hebrew/Phoenecian and Aramaic. Yeshua is Aramaic.



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 07:14 PM
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Originally posted by adjensen
There is no evidence for this.


Jesus read from and quoted the Septuagint, which is in Greek.


Originally posted by adjensen

There is also no evidence for this.


Perhaps you would like to show us Jesus using the name Yeshua instead of Iesous within the Greek New Testament texts?



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 07:18 PM
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Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by adjensen
There is no evidence for this.


Jesus read from and quoted the Septuagint, which is in Greek.

There is no evidence for that, unless you want to claim that Jesus couldn't read Hebrew.


Perhaps you would like to show us Jesus using the name Yeshua instead of Iesous within the Greek New Testament texts?

I have shown you in the past that Iesous is the Greek transliteration of Yeshua.



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 07:30 PM
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Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by adjensen
 


And Yeshua is Hebrew, not Aramaic.


There is no "Hebrew" language, only Paleo-Hebrew/Phoenecian and Aramaic. Yeshua is Aramaic.


Okay. Lol



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 07:44 PM
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Originally posted by adjensen

There is no evidence for that, unless you want to claim that Jesus couldn't read Hebrew.


The evidence is found in the New Testament where He quotes the Septuagint.


Originally posted by adjensen

I have shown you in the past that Iesous is the Greek transliteration of Yeshua.


You have not shown that at all. The name Yeshua has a different meaning than what the angel tells Mary the name Iesous means.

And I'm still waiting for you to provide the credible Greek Biblical text that has Yeshua instead of Iesous.
edit on 28-7-2013 by truejew because: (no reason given)



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 07:56 PM
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Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by adjensen

There is no evidence for that, unless you want to claim that Jesus couldn't read Hebrew.


The evidence is found in the New Testament where He quotes the Septuagint.

I was unaware that Jesus wrote the New Testament.

Oh, that's right, he didn't. Greek speaking authors, who could more easily copy from the Septuagint than translate from the Hebrew texts which existed at the time, did. It's odd that you're attempting to claim that Jesus was unable to read Hebrew.


You have not shown that at all. The name Yeshua has a different meaning than what the angel tells Mary the name Iesous means.

So now the angels and Mary are also Greek speakers?


And I'm still waiting for you to provide the credible Greek Biblical text that has Yeshua instead of Iesous.

Why would a Greek text, aimed at a Greek audience, have a Hebrew name in it? But every place that the Hebrew Bible has "Yeshua" in it, the Greek counterpart has "Iesous", demonstrating that Jesus' Hebrew name is Yeshua. Regardless, Iesous is not pronounced "gee-zus", so your point is moot.



posted on Jul, 28 2013 @ 09:01 PM
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Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by lonewolf19792000

Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by lonewolf19792000
 


I'll let you argue with all of your sacred name friends which guess name to use. For me I already know His name is Jesus. The same name that has been preached for around 2000 years, was a Hebrew name over a thousand of years previous that, and means EhJeh saves.


There's only one name to be baptized in, that's the only name I need to know, yet the scriptures do not originate in English. Wether you baptize in the name of Yeshua, Jesus or Iesous. The issue is, who thinks the Lord is a moron? Does he not rightly say he searches the hearts and minds? Can he not call you to repentance without saying one word? What then, is there to argue about?


edit on 28-7-2013 by lonewolf19792000 because: (no reason given)


Yeshua is not a name for Christ. Jesus and Jesous are the same name.


Sigh. I'm done. You can believe whatever. I'm not going to sit here and argue over this any longer. I'm tapping out because this argument is a pointless waste of time and energy.



posted on Jul, 29 2013 @ 04:54 AM
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Originally posted by adjensen

It's odd that you're attempting to claim that Jesus was unable to read Hebrew.


No one is able to read "Hebrew". It does not exist. There is Aramaic and Paleo-Hebrew/Phoenecian. It is probable that He, coming from a Jewish family, could read Aramaic, however the evidence points to Him speaking Greek.


Originally posted by adjensen

So now the angels and Mary are also Greek speakers?


Either Yeshua is not the name of Christ or the angel lied to Mary. Yeshua means "God calls out" not "God saves" as the angel says. Jeshas/Jesous/Jesus does mean "God saves"


Originally posted by adjensen

Why would a Greek text, aimed at a Greek audience, have a Hebrew name in it? But every place that the Hebrew Bible has "Yeshua" in it, the Greek counterpart has "Iesous", demonstrating that Jesus' Hebrew name is Yeshua. Regardless, Iesous is not pronounced "gee-zus", so your point is moot.


There is no "Hebrew" New Testament. There is Aramaic, but I do not trust it's use of Yeshua because Yeshua does not mean the same as the name Iesous. Again Yeshua means "God calls out", not "God saves" like Jeshas/Jesous/Jesus does.



posted on Jul, 29 2013 @ 06:21 AM
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reply to post by truejew
 



Hebrew /ˈhiːbruː/ (עִבְרִית ʿIvrit [ʔivˈʁit] ( listen) or [ʕivˈɾit] ( listen)) is a West Semitic language of the Afroasiatic language family. Historically, it is regarded as the language of the Hebrews/Israelites and their ancestors. The earliest examples of written Hebrew date from the 10th century BCE.[4]





Modern Hebrew is one of the two official languages of Israel (the other being Arabic), while Classical Hebrew is used for prayer or study in Jewish communities around the world today. Ancient Hebrew is also the liturgical tongue of the Samaritans, while modern Hebrew or Arabic is their vernacular. As a foreign language, it is studied mostly by Jews and students of Judaism and Israel, and by archaeologists and linguists specializing in the Middle East and its civilizations, as well as by theologians, and in Christian seminaries.


Hebrew - Wiki



posted on Jul, 29 2013 @ 06:31 AM
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reply to post by NOTurTypical
 


They speak of Paleo-Hebrew/Phoenecian and Aramaic and incorrectly call it Hebrew.

Compare the dates between Paleo-Hebrew and what they call "Hebrew". Both are 10th Century BCE - 2nd Century CE
edit on 29-7-2013 by truejew because: (no reason given)



posted on Jul, 29 2013 @ 06:40 AM
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Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by NOTurTypical
 


They speak of Paleo-Hebrew/Phoenecian and Aramaic and incorrectly call it Hebrew.


No. You have:

Modern Hebrew
Classic Hebrew
Ancient Hebrew
Paleo-Hebrew

All are different. I've studied Hebrew, you have no clue what you're talking about. Hebrew is the only language in the history of mankind that went extinct in spoken dialect and then was "resurrected" to be a spoken language again.

Which is a fulfilled OT prophecy by the way.



posted on Jul, 29 2013 @ 06:51 AM
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reply to post by NOTurTypical
 


As I said, look at the dates. Americans speak English, not American. The Hebrews spoke Paleo-Hebrew/Phoenecian and later Aramaic, not Hebrew. "Modern Hebrew" is not Paleo-Hebrew.

With your track record of speaking false prophecies and claiming them to be from the Old Testament, I doubt your prophecy on Paleo-Hebrew being re-learned too.



posted on Jul, 29 2013 @ 06:57 AM
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reply to post by truejew
 


Paleo-Hebrew has a completely different alphabet and phonetics than Hebrew. And this prophecy says that after they are restored they will speak their own language. One that had "died" from human history and had no longer been spoken.

"Thus says the LORD of hosts, the God of Israel, "Once again they will speak this word in the land of Judah and in its cities when I restore their fortunes, 'The LORD bless you, O abode of righteousness, O holy hill!'" 

-Jeremiah 31:23



posted on Jul, 29 2013 @ 07:26 AM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
 


Paleo-Hebrew has a completely different alphabet and phonetics than Hebrew. And this prophecy says that after they are restored they will speak their own language. One that had "died" from human history and had no longer been spoken.

"Thus says the LORD of hosts, the God of Israel, "Once again they will speak this word in the land of Judah and in its cities when I restore their fortunes, 'The LORD bless you, O abode of righteousness, O holy hill!'" 

-Jeremiah 31:23


The Septuagint has the following...

Jeremias 31:20 Moab is put to shame, because he is broken: howl and cry; proclaim in Arnon, that Moab has perished. 21 And judgment is coming against the land of Misor, upon Chelon, and Rephas, and Mophas, 22 and upon Daebon, and upon Nabau, and upon the house of Daethlathaim, 23 and upon Cariathaim, and upon the house of Gaemol, and upon the house of Maon, 24 and upon Carioth, and upon Bosor, and upon all the cities of Moab, far and near. 25 The horn of Moab is broken, and his arm is crushed.

What you see in the KJV means that the prophecy of judgment will be spoken again in the land of Misor, upon Chelon, Rephas, Mophas, Daebon, Nabau, upon the house of Daethlathaim, upon Cariathaim, upon the house of Gaemol, and upon the house of Maon...

It does not say what you claim.



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