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Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
In debate what you just said is called "arbitrariness". It's meaningless to just arbitrarily assert something as a fact statement that is unsupported. Where is your source?
I am not debating, I am speaking the truth.
Those with an antichrist spirit want to wipe out the only saving name of Jesus. They create this idea of no "j" sound, change God's name to a guess name based off the Babylonian YHWH, and use the name of the Egyptian moon god in most of their guess names. They then claim that the name of Jesus means "pig god".
While you have not fully accepted their teachings, you are on the path they have created. Once a person is on a path, they may pause in a spot for awhile, but they usually continue on to the end. I am concerned that you may someday, completely deny the name of Jesus.
Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by NOTurTypical
In addition, the name of Yahveh is made up of two words. Yah, the Egyptian moon god and the Hebrew word "ahveh".
What does "ahveh" mean? Let's check Strong's concordance.
----------------------------------------------
Strong's # 5773
1) distorting, perverting, warping
---------------------------------------------
Yahveh means "moon god of distortion/perversion/warping"edit on 19-10-2012 by truejew because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by DISRAELI
reply to post by truejew
I provided evidence that Jesus spoke Aramaic, from the fact that the gospels quote words and phrases that he used (e.g TALITHA KOUM, ELI ELI LAMA SABACHTHANI).
I do not need, and did not claim, to provide evidence for what languages he did not speak.
edit on 19-10-2012 by DISRAELI because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by DISRAELI
reply to post by truejew
I provided evidence that Jesus spoke Aramaic, from the fact that the gospels quote words and phrases that he used (e.g TALITHA KOUM, ELI ELI LAMA SABACHTHANI).
I do not need, and did not claim, to provide evidence for what languages he did not speak.
edit on 19-10-2012 by DISRAELI because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Show me one source from an expert in the Biblical languages that either Greek or Hebrew have a "J" phonetic sound. You'll make history.
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Show me one source from an expert in the Biblical languages that either Greek or Hebrew have a "J" phonetic sound. You'll make history.
I can, but won't.
Likewise, when it comes to logic, we are not permitted to be arbitrary. This is the whole point of rational debate. The goal is to show that we have a good reason for our position, and that it is not arbitrary. In a debate, to be arbitrary is to concede defeat. It is to say, “I don’t really have a good reason for my position.”
Originally posted by truejew
Do you have the originals with the Aramaic in them?
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Show me one source from an expert in the Biblical languages that either Greek or Hebrew have a "J" phonetic sound. You'll make history.
I can, but won't.
Then your argument remains arbitrary and irrelevant, your choice.
Likewise, when it comes to logic, we are not permitted to be arbitrary. This is the whole point of rational debate. The goal is to show that we have a good reason for our position, and that it is not arbitrary. In a debate, to be arbitrary is to concede defeat. It is to say, “I don’t really have a good reason for my position.”
Arbitrariness.
Originally posted by DISRAELI
Originally posted by truejew
Do you have the originals with the Aramaic in them?
I repeat the point I made before.
ALL the gospel manuscripts which contain the words of Jesus include the Aramaic words and phrases.
The evidence that Jesus used Aramaic as just as strong as the evidence that Jesus said anything at all, or even existed, because it is exactly the same evidence
Once you start denying that evidence, you are denying the existence of Jesus. And where does that put you?
And your demand for "originals" is a little hypocritical, is it not, because you have no "original" documents whatever for any of the claims that you're making?
edit on 19-10-2012 by DISRAELI because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by truejew
You said you have manuscripts that prove Jesus spoke Aramaic
For that to be, they would have to be the originals.
Description of Special Pleading
Special Pleading is a fallacy in which a person applies standards, principles, rules, etc. to others while taking herself (or those she has a special interest in) to be exempt, without providing adequate justification for the exemption. This sort of "reasoning" has the following form:
Originally posted by DISRAELI
That is false. Never at any time did I claim to possess any manuscripts.
Originally posted by DISRAELI
As I said before, ALL manuscripts of the gospels contain the Aramaic words and phrases.
Originally posted by DISRAELI
As I said before, exactly the same logic applies to ALL the teaching of Jesus. We have absolutely nothing of Jesus except in copied manuscripts. Once you deny that evidence, you are denying the existence of Jesus. And who, without the spirit of antichrist, denies the existence of Jesus?
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Debating or not it's still irrational logic. One doesn't need to be is a classically defined "debate" to be using faulty logic, or on the other hand, one doesn't get a free-pass to be irrational and illogical if not in a classic or official "debate",.. sorry.
Originally posted by truejew
You did claim that you had proof that Jesus spoke Aramaic.
[ That could not be without the originals or some other proof that shows that the words really were spoken in Aramaic.
So those who are not sure that Jesus spoke Aramaic, deny His existence? Does not make sense to me.
Bruce M. Metzger, one of the most respected New Testament scholars, in Lexical Aids for Students of New Testament Greek, he has a chart on the transliteration of Greek letters and for Ι or ι, when at the beginning of a word and followed by a vowel, is pronounced j, and he gives the examples of, jot, and Jesus.
Show me one source from an expert in the Biblical languages that either Greek or Hebrew have a "J" phonetic sound. You'll make history.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical
Bruce M. Metzger, one of the most respected New Testament scholars, in Lexical Aids for Students of New Testament Greek, he has a chart on the transliteration of Greek letters and for Ι or ι, when at the beginning of a word and followed by a vowel, is pronounced j, and he gives the examples of, jot, and Jesus.
Show me one source from an expert in the Biblical languages that either Greek or Hebrew have a "J" phonetic sound. You'll make history.
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
Debating or not it's still irrational logic. One doesn't need to be is a classically defined "debate" to be using faulty logic, or on the other hand, one doesn't get a free-pass to be irrational and illogical if not in a classic or official "debate",.. sorry.
I do not want to post a source due to the personal attacks that occurred the last time I posted a source. I think that is very rational logic.
You did claim that you had proof that Jesus spoke Aramaic. That could not be without the originals or some other proof that shows that the words really were spoken in Aramaic.