God Rebukes Lady Who Knows His True Hebrew Name For Continuing To Use The J Name?

Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical

 

Jesus is no less Hebrew than James or Judas.

You already just said Jesus = Joshua, so how is all of a sudden Jesus a Greek name?.

If you really want someone to believe your line, show the Greek source for the name Jesus that does not come directly from the Old Testament, or other Jews named also from that same old testament character.

Jesus and Joshua are both non-Hebrew names. There isn't a J in Hebrew. The Hebrew would be "Yehoshua", I believe I stated that already. All these names, Jesus, Joshua, James, and Judah are Latinized translations of Hebrew names.

reply to post by truejew


Who told you that??? Iesous is pronounced (ee-YAY-soos). The sounds letters make is called "phonics", and the application of that is called "phonology". Hebrew and Greek have no phonetic sounds for a J as we do in English.

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew

 

Who told you that??? Iesous is pronounced (ee-YAY-soos). The sounds letters make is called "phonics", and the application of that is called "phonology". Hebrew and Greek have no phonetic sounds for a J as we do in English.

There was a "j" sound, just not a written "j". The written letter "i" could have the "i", "y", or "j" sound. Which sound was used depended on the next letter. The written "j" was created to help make it less confusing to know which sound is used.

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew

 

Who told you that??? Iesous is pronounced (ee-YAY-soos). The sounds letters make is called "phonics", and the application of that is called "phonology". Hebrew and Greek have no phonetic sounds for a J as we do in English.

There was a "j" sound, just not a written "j". The written letter "i" could have the "i", "y", or "j" sound. Which sound was used depended on the next letter. The written "j" was created to help make it less confusing to know which sound is used.

That's completely wrong. I already linked Greek phonology in the other thread. And you're especially wrong about the name Iesous, which is pronounced (ee-YAY-soos). Here is Greek phonology again:

Koine Greek Phonology.

Originally posted by NOTurTypical

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew

 

Who told you that??? Iesous is pronounced (ee-YAY-soos). The sounds letters make is called "phonics", and the application of that is called "phonology". Hebrew and Greek have no phonetic sounds for a J as we do in English.

There was a "j" sound, just not a written "j". The written letter "i" could have the "i", "y", or "j" sound. Which sound was used depended on the next letter. The written "j" was created to help make it less confusing to know which sound is used.

That's completely wrong. I already linked Greek phonology in the other thread. And you're especially wrong about the name Iesous, which is pronounced (ee-YAY-soos). Here is Greek phonology again:

Koine Greek Phonology.

I am completely correct. The people you are getting your info from, are the same ones that hate the name of Jesus (Babylonian Jews and Yahwists).

The Hebrews took the "j" sound from Egypt.

reply to post by truejew


Look at the sources for the link provided, and btw, you didn't source.

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew

 

Look at the sources for the link provided, and btw, you didn't source.

Your sources are wrong.

reply to post by truejew




I got plenty of ancient languages depicted from various encyclopedias.



The english letter "J" derives from the Aramaic, hebrew and phoenician version of the letter "I" which has a hard E sound, and is also the same letter for "Y" and the letter "Y" also has a hard E sound and is represented by the "Iod" or "Yod" which is the same letter. You can beat around the bush and spread your misinformation but it does not change the fact that there was no J sound in hebrew, phoenician or aramaic or even greek as greek evolved from phoenician, hebrew and aramaic.







This is the evolution of language from the progenitors to the modern day and you can see where even english evolved from Aramaic, Etruscan and Roman letters (above).



YHWH would be the same as depicted as IEUE, just depends on the language you speak. If you can read aramaic and hebrew you can read ancient egyptian, it's essentially the same language, just the egyptians made the letters look like art but it's the same letters depicted as hieroglyphs.

reply to post by lonewolf19792000


You are getting your info from antichrist sources. Their goal is to wipe out the true name of God. The truth is, there was a "j" sound that the Hebrews got from the Egyptians.

YHWH is Aramaic, not Hebrew. It has no connection to God and is used in Babylonian witchcraft.

I love Jesus by his character, his person as discerned from reading the Gospels. He's a unique and personal who, and a rose by any other name still smells as sweet, and his mind was like a perfect rose, even to the point of being encircled by a crown of thorns.

Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by lonewolf19792000

 

You are getting your info from antichrist sources. Their goal is to wipe out the true name of God. The truth is, there was a "j" sound that the Hebrews got from the Egyptians.

YHWH is Aramaic, not Hebrew. It has no connection to God and is used in Babylonian witchcraft.

Uh, aramaic was the common language of Israel, hebrew was the religious language. Jesus spoke aramaic.

I'm sorry but if as you claim they got the j sound from egyptians than what was Abraham calling God? His name had already been established, which is why they knew who Moses was talking about when he told them "I AM sent me". Israel was in Egypt for 400 years after the patriarchs went there and they knew the name of their own God even before then or have you forgotten Abraham, Isaac and Jacob and the sons of Jacob? Abraham came from out of Ur of the chaldees which was what later became Babylonian. The entire meaning of the word Hebrew or "habiru" is "those who cross over" or "sojourner in a foreign land" meaning from out of Babylon. Abraham later lived in Haran with Terah his father when God called him forth from his fathers household. Abraham knew God's name before he ever went in to Egypt.

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew

 

Look at the sources for the link provided, and btw, you didn't source.

Your sources are wrong.

In debate what you just said is called "arbitrariness". It's meaningless to just arbitrarily assert something as a fact statement that is unsupported. Where is your source?

reply to post by lonewolf19792000

Uh, aramaic was the common language of Israel . . .

Uh, there was no Israel since the time of the Assyrian Empire.
There was a Roman province called Judea, which Jesus did not live in.
Jesus lived in a gentile, Greek speaking area called Galilee.

Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
reply to post by lonewolf19792000

 

Uh, aramaic was the common language of Israel, hebrew was the religious language. Jesus spoke aramaic.

Aramaic is a Babylonian language. Jesus probably spoke Greek.

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew

 

In debate what you just said is called "arbitrariness". It's meaningless to just arbitrarily assert something as a fact statement that is unsupported. Where is your source?

I am not debating, I am speaking the truth.

Those with an antichrist spirit want to wipe out the only saving name of Jesus. They create this idea of no "j" sound, change God's name to a guess name based off the Babylonian YHWH, and use the name of the Egyptian moon god in most of their guess names. They then claim that the name of Jesus means "pig god".

While you have not fully accepted their teachings, you are on the path they have created. Once a person is on a path, they may pause in a spot for awhile, but they usually continue on to the end. I am concerned that you may someday, completely deny the name of Jesus.

Originally posted by truejew
Aramaic is a Babylonian language.

How does that affect the question?
English is a European language, the language of a small island in fact, but that doesn't prevent it being spoken on other continents.
The key to the spread of Aramaic was being made the official language of administration of the Persian empire, which meant that subject peoples picked it up, all over the Fertile Crescent.
(Anyway, it isn't Babylonian in origin. It resembles later Arabic in being the language of desert tribes who overran Babylonia.)

The gospels contain, unchanged, remarks made by Jesus in Aramaic.

reply to post by NOTurTypical


In addition, the name of Yahveh is made up of two words. Yah, the Egyptian moon god and the Hebrew word "ahveh".

What does "ahveh" mean? Let's check Strong's concordance.

----------------------------------------------
Strong's # 5773

1) distorting, perverting, warping
---------------------------------------------

Yahveh means "moon god of distortion/perversion/warping"

Originally posted by DISRAELI
How does that affect the question?

It shows that YHWH had its beginning in Babylon and did not exist in the true Hebrew religion before Babylon.

Originally posted by DISRAELI

(Anyway, it isn't Babylonian in origin. It resembles later Arabic in being the language of desert tribes who overran Babylonia.)

It had its beginning as a language of the Jews during their time in Babylon.

Originally posted by DISRAELI

The gospels contain, unchanged, remarks made by Jesus in Aramaic.

Do you have an original gospel, written by the original author with his own hand to prove Jesus spoke those remarks in Aramaic? Jesus probably spoke in Greek.

Originally posted by truejew
Do you have an original gospel, written by the original author with his own hand to prove Jesus spoke those remarks in Aramaic?

The manuscript evidence that Jesus made these remarks in Aramaic is identical to the manuscript evidence that he said anything at all.
In other words, once you start setting aside the gospel evidence, you've got no reason for believing that Jesus ever existed.
Your approach to this evidence marks you out as a falsifier, apparently inspired by the spirit of antichrist.

Originally posted by DISRAELI

Originally posted by truejew
Do you have an original gospel, written by the original author with his own hand to prove Jesus spoke those remarks in Aramaic?

The manuscript evidence that Jesus made these remarks in Aramaic is identical to the manuscript evidence that he said anything at all.
In other words, once you start setting aside the gospel evidence, you've got no reason for believing that Jesus ever existed.
Your approach to this evidence marks you out as a falsifier, apparently inspired by the spirit of antichrist.

You have not provided any evidence that Jesus did not speak Greek.

If I was inspired by the spirit of antichrist, why would I be here defending the true name of Christ?