It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
Originally posted by PhysicsAdept
reply to post by UKLionheart
Would you say then, that .000000000000000000000000000000...1 equals 0?
So let's assume 1/infinity = 0. That would mean 1 = infinity * 0.
But I'm sure you would also say 2/infinity = 0...which would mean 2 = infinity * 0.
Simple replacement gives you 1 = 2.
Would you say then, that .000000000000000000000000000000...1 equals 0?
Originally posted by UKLionheart
reply to post by PhysicsAdept
You said in your opening post that some infinites are larger than others. This is true. There are "countable" and "uncountable" infinities.
For example:
1 2 3 4 5....
1 4 9 16 25....
You can count the square numbers, but you cannot count decimals, because there is always another decimal place to add. you can however count fractions!!
Here is a really interesting documentary on infinity:
www.youtube.com...
Tsk tsk. Well alas I believe we are at an impasse. I greatly enjoyed everyone's ideas including yours. I cannot admit that I am wrong because I have yet to see how I am wrong. The problem with this question, "Why does 1/∞ not equal 0", or really it has involved into "What does 1/∞ equal", is that no one wants to deal with infinity. I tried to make my point, loud and clear, that we were assuming we could reach infinity.
Here is where the problem is.
Everyone (I generalize, nut not completely conclude it is EVERYone) with an education, as well as everyone without an education, does not seem to want to step out of the box for a second. The question is not what the limit is, nor what it means... well to an extent it is, but the real question and analysis is supposed to come after the point of infinity is reached. Now, my stance here is that, who knows if it is possible?
I know the definition of infinity, please do not insult me by saying I don't (or that I am missing fundamental skills, or that cannot grasp a limit). However, as a mathematician, I feel like it is (our) obligation to explore! It is (our) obligation to delve into the unknown and try to find out as much as we can!
Well, I get excited from it anyway. I mean, to just decide infinity as something that doesn't belong in an equation... it hurts a little bit. If infinity truly does represent everything, should we not attempt at the very least to incorporate it into an equation here and there? Mind you, it is not a number, but I stand by what I say! I wish to examine it as a number, as if it were one, as well as if it was this unstoppable force colliding into an unmovable object. Where is the harm in that? Infinity to me must act differently that the typical number though, because unlike the rationals, it is not constant. Unlike the irrationals it has no estimated definition. THAT is what I wanted to discuss. I want some speculation every now and again. Trust me, I am all about the numbers. I am the first guy to ask for the statistics of something and the math behind reasoning. But I have yet to see any undeniable proof of what you say, sorry.
Your proofs have been just as valid as mine in some ways, and also just as contradictory. Like on the other thread when you were talking about units... and how units are not generalizations, because they aren't exact they are based on society. Uh, yeahhh hello that would be a generalization.
Anyway, I wanted to explore what happened to that limit once x did in fact equal infinity. Remember, there is no proof to say it cannot happen, just speculation backing that it cannot. Because absence of proof is not proof of absence I chose to ascend into the chaotic realm of indeterminacy. I guess some people do not belong here--the textbooks cannot help them which must bring fear into their mind, clouding their vision.
With everything (I can currently think of) being said, I would like to point out that I do not believe you are wrong. Your entire purpose it seems is to prove that you are right. I will agree in front of all of ATS that I believe you to be correct, and this is why:
There is no such point to where you can not divide it further in math theory.
In reality, it depends on what you are talking about...and in reality things are finite, not infinite.
True, in the real world that is true. We live in the real world, and thus it is true. However, I think this quote helps my case more than yours, outside of the real world. In reality, things are finite, not infinite. I wasn't walking about reality, I was talking about sub-reality. Ya know, where the plane of infinity exists. The imaginative side of math, that maybe one day can be an application for the real world. (Imaginary numbers where originally thought of as nothing useful but apparently used in circuitry today under practical application. Bet Descartes would have freaked )
So I hope now, that maybe you can step back and see my side. You, in reality, are correct. I will admit to that (though I dare you to try to find a quote of me refuting that, with respect to reality).
So reality aside, I want to ask you. No explanation is needed, if you say no then I will already understand why you say it. If you were to reach infinity, outside of what we hypothesize to be true in the real world, does 1/∞=0?
Well that is just the thing, it is no paradox... 1 will not equal 2.
Originally posted by OutKast Searcher
reply to post by PhysicsAdept
Stop ignoring this
So let's assume 1/infinity = 0. That would mean 1 = infinity * 0.
But I'm sure you would also say 2/infinity = 0...which would mean 2 = infinity * 0.
Simple replacement gives you 1 = 2.
And explain how you resolve this paradox.
Originally posted by UKLionheart
Originally posted by OutKast Searcher
reply to post by PhysicsAdept
Stop ignoring this
So let's assume 1/infinity = 0. That would mean 1 = infinity * 0.
But I'm sure you would also say 2/infinity = 0...which would mean 2 = infinity * 0.
Simple replacement gives you 1 = 2.
And explain how you resolve this paradox.
Hi. As I said in a previous post, Infinity is a cincept, not a specific value, so you cannot perform calculations with it. This isn't a paradox; what ypu have asked is (in maths terms) nonsense. :-(
Originally posted by PhysicsAdept
reply to post by OutKast Searcher
Ooo yeah and let's have a base pi when dealing with geometry and a Plancks base when doing quantum physics, that'll solve everything
Ha I thought we were talking with reality and practicality? Would there not still be problems with other bases? Shall we run away from every discrepancy we find?
Originally posted by OutKast Searcher
the whole .9r = 1 problem has to do with us using base ten...nothing else.
It doesn't prove anything except that some bases are better at representing some numbers.
Yes but the method you claim to be "more correct" (and now you suddenly disagree that you even [agreed with it ever) has the same error. if 1/∞=.0r1, then 2/∞=.0r1 so then 1 would equal 2.