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Originally posted by Mary Rose
reply to post by metalshredmetal
So, there's a correlation between handedness and being technically inclined as opposed to musically inclined? Are most musicians left-handed?
A hotly debated topic is the possible difference in cerebral asymmetry between musicians and non-musicians. In a pioneering behavioural study50 Bever and Chiarell reported right-ear (left hemispheric) dominance in musicians, left-ear dominance in non-musicians. The first imaging study,38 with positron emission tomography (PET), showed that right>left asymmetries in non-musicians confronted with timbre, chord and pitch tasks, but left>right asymmetries in musicians. The authors speculated that the left-sided dominance in musicians might be related to an analytical process—i.e. they interpret music more deeply than non-musicians. Musicians also showed increased blood flow velocity in the left hemisphere whereas non-musicians showed right hemispheric lateralization only during harmony perception. In a magnetic resonance study,46 musicians showed higher activation than non-musicians in the secondary auditory area and in dorsolateral prefrontal regions of the left hemisphere, whereas non-musicians displayed opposite dominance. Further, in musicians, activation of the left planum temporale, which was also anatomically larger than in non-musicians,52 was found to be stronger. This left lateralization in musicians has been replicated by other groups.47,53 A point to note is that, for musicians, mere passive listening is more difficult because of their spontaneous analytical processing, and this possibly contributes to the left lateralization. The ability of music to induce emotions is universal: simply, we are‘ moved’ by it. A PET study54 showed that activity in several paralimbic regions correlated with emotions (unpleasant or pleasant) generated by musical stimuli with varying degrees of dissonance. While the subjects were listening to their favourite music, brain areas (ventral striatum, dorsolateral midbrain) associated with reward or pleasure were activated.55
I still can't tell if this guy is intentionally deceptive or just bonkers...
Exactly!
Frequency and wavelength both assume logarithmic values.
The reality of music is that it is noncommutative or complementary opposite harmonics.
*
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"Deny Ignorance, don't you know?"
is it advice to never admit you don't know?
Originally posted by DenyObfuscation
reply to post by DenyObfuscation
I have no choice but to take that as an infinite phase amplitude no resonance frequency of superluminal unconciousness generated from the cube root of no. 125/64 will never = 2.....
Those Aristotelean and Euclidean characters of continuity which became the right embedding of the theory of incommensurability credibly did not appear before Eudoxus and probably were fostered by the discovery of incommensurability, and the Quadrivium in its earlier Pythagorean version (if any) did not know any discrete/continuous opposition. In other words when music theory paved the road toward the discovery of incommensurability the idea of geometric magnitude was too clumsy to develop and even to understand such discovery, and it was exactly the possibility of the geometric drawing of a not-existent music interval to foster the development of the Aristotelean continuity.224
Originally posted by Astyanax
Who – apart from you – ever suggested that music was commutative?
They are a compromise between the perfect intervals that sound pleasant to our ears ....
Noncommutative music is defined by the presence of two or more scales whose lattice of integral combinations defines a dense subset of the tonic continuum. The effect of such a feature is to make it impossible to identify individual notes within the musical piece, rendering traditional musical analysis impossible.
Early definitions of the second were based on the apparent motion of the sun around the earth.[2] The solar day was divided into 24 hours, each of which contained 60 minutes of 60 seconds each, so the second was 1⁄86 400 of the mean solar day.
On the other hand, as early as the 27th century B.C.E., the Sumerians had used artificial time units in referring to the tenure of some high official – e.g., on N-day of the turn of office of PN, governor. The Sumerian administration also needed a time unit comprising the whole agricultural cycle; for example, from the delivery of new barley and the settling of pertinent accounts to the next crop. This financial year began about two months after barley cutting. For other purposes, a year began before or with the harvest. This fluctuating and discontinuous year was not precise enough for the meticulous accounting of Sumerian scribes, who by 2400 B.C.E. already used the schematic year of 30 x 12 = 360 days
Originally posted by Astyanax
- 'Negative infinity' was not created by Plato;
Plato and the Academy, the numeric representation of musical scales and harmonic theory were well-known, Plato’s correspondents, colleagues, and followers associated him with Pythagoreanism, and the Neo-Pythagoreans made the scale of twelve, regularly spaced notes part of their studies of the metaphysics allegedly hidden in the dialogues. Methodologically, the inductive arguments for these claims have been secured by presenting extensive, mutually reinforcing lines of evidence. There were two kinds of controls or checks.... The specific measurements of relative location were confirmed to within a half a percent by the passages alluding to the Golden Mean, which generally validates the algorithms and programs employed. Claims like these raise more questions than can be addressed within the confines of an essay. Though the evidence reported here will need to be verified and debated, it does clarify, in a surprising way, Aristotle’s once puzzling view that Plato was a Pythagorean.
McClain though, instead focuses on the Western use of this “Great Dragon Tuning” – and in his
book The Pythagorean Plato the hint is given that 9/8, the major 2nd music interval, when cubed,
was the square root of two as the tritone music interval. “Since 9 actually reduces to a wholetone of 9/8, its cube will reduce to (9/8)³ = 729/512, a Pythagorean approximation to the square root of two, a problem which fascinated Socrates in the marriage allegory.”206
The crisis of Pythagorean rationality, to which Plato's thought responds, marks the first rigorous appearance of what I call metalogical difference - the disjunction of the metalogical properties of consistency and completeness, arising in the pursuit of their synthesis.... In contrast, I argue that Plato's decision, legible at crucial points of the dialogues, is to accept a fully logical role for incommensurability, and that in consequence his thought is able to absorb as torsion rather than as ontotheological paradox or logical nihilism a large measure of incommensurability's negation of received philosophical and prephilosophical ideals of perfection - and even of the primacy of Being.
In Physics, book IV, Aristotle considered a possibility of adopting a zero number. "Now there is a ratio in which the void is exceeded by body, as there is no ratio of 0 to a number (τ_ μηδέv πρ_ς _ρι'μόv). For if 4 exceeds 3 by 1, and 2 by more than 1, and 1 by still more than it exceeds 2, still there is no ratio by which it exceeds 0; for that which exceeds must be divisible into the excess + that which is exceeded, so that 4 will be what it exceeds 4 + 0." (15) There is no doubt that the name of "zero" appearing in the above quotation from Physics means "a number zero" and is evidently connected with a notion of "nothing" or "nothingness". It is also indicated by the term of μηδέv used by Aristotle. This term does not belong to a dictionary of basic terms of Aristotle's system for obvious reasons. The Philosopher employed it when he analysed views of his predecessors while writing about beings coming to be from nothingness (16) and according to the ex nihilo nihil fit principle he rejected non-being conceived of as nothingness.
This proportion is important because it represents half of the total resonant region around a major sixth in the spectral interference pattern over an octave. As a practical matter, this dimension in the stone chapel allows sound to resonate maximally without the reflectiveness of a pure 5:3 major sixth proportion. As I came to explore Rosslyn further, I began to understand how this “magic ratio” could have been symbolic of enlightenment or even a portal to heaven. When we look at proportions below a major sixth, we find that they get closer and closer to the resonance cancelling golden ratio of 1.618033, but when we look at the proportions above a major sixth, they converge upward to the octave. Given that the golden ratio is a perfect damping proportion and symbolizes the Underworld of Earthly structure, the proportion above a major sixth could have been taken to represent enlightenment and a path of entry into the spiritual realm.
The answer is they used a musical interval the Roman Church had outlawed in 1234 at the start of the Papal Inquisition and Holy Crusades. This was the interval of a half-octave or “tritone”, nicknamed Diabolus in Musica due to various pagan associations. But Sinclair and Haye knew it was the key to understanding the balance of resonance and damping in Nature - so, they preserved it in the chapel’s architecture as musical patterns, dreaming of the day it would be discovered.
Originally posted by Astyanax
Who – apart from you – ever suggested that music was commutative? What does that even mean?
[
The keyboard is partitioned into equivalence classes that are labeled by the designating symbols of the chromatic sequence. Assuming Octave Equivalence, there are only 11 distinct transpositions and one identity transposition. The set of transpositions is now a cyclic (commutative) group of transformations of order 12. Think of the transpositions as being affected by repeated application of the operator '#' or of 'b'. The full group is generated by powers of either operator, which is what is meant by a cyclic group. We have considered in this aside, the concept of group only as it relates to the conceptually equivalent notions of the modern keyboard and the well tempering that defines it.
EDUCATION: Ph.D. Theoretical Physics - University of Wisconsin. Major areas: General Relativity, Quantum Field Theory, High Energy/Particle Physics and Statistical Mechanics Minor: Mathematics M.S. Mathematics - Long Island University. with Graduate study in Physics, and Music with Stefan Wolpe B.A. Mathematics - Long Island University. Minors: Physics, Music, Philosophy, Comparative Linguistics with Graduate study in Mathematics, Physics, and graduate Music with Raoul Pleskow
Originally posted by Astyanax
- 'Negative infinity' was not created by Plato;
The first notion of an abstract zero, that is a number zero, in the history of human thought appeared in Aristotle's philosophy in the 4th c. BC
Originally posted by Astyanax
Puharic was not a physicist or a mathematician but a doctor of medicine;
In Quantum Mechanics In quantum mechanics Thomas precession is a correction to the spin-orbit interaction, which takes into account the relativistic time dilation between the electron and the nucleus in hydrogenic atoms. Basically, it states that spinning objects precess when they accelerate in special relativity because Lorentz boosts do not commute with each other.
Protons moving at relativistic velocities are profoundly influenced by the magnetic field while their rest mass is not signficantly altered, their total energy, particularly the magnetic component is increased.
Schwinger points out that even though the Maxwell equations call for a symmetry between electric charge and magnetic charge, the cold fact is that no magnetic counterpart to the electric charge is known.
...the proton now has a frame of reference which (depending on its energy) may have a wave length which is equal to the radius of the solar system.
...the 1 KHz signal, the acoustic phonon displacement....will set up a magnetic field....it will be picked up by the hydrogen proton....the higher the magnetic field the higher the frequency of precession.
Originally posted by UncleV
Um...thanks for the reply, I think....still not too sure what all this is supposed to mean.
This is what I don't understand about the OP's original posts, what is it you are suggesting should change? Again, very simple please.
Barbera does note that Archytas used the Babylonian tetrachord, an extension of the tetrad, 6:8::9:12 whereby 8 is the harmonic mean and 9 is the arithmetic mean between 6 and 12 with the above changed meanings as discussed.236 So 1, 4/3, 3/2, 2 were converted to 6:8:9:12. So 8 x 9 = 72 (harmonic mean x arithmetic mean = geometric mean squared) and the square root of 72 in simplified radical form is 6 times the square root of 2 – or the equal-tempered logarithmic tritone music interval, the 6th semitone of the 12 note scale aka the Devil’s Interval.
As Professor Andre Barbera exposes: Orthodox Pythagorean theory recognizes five consonances: fourth, fifth, octave, twelfth, and double octave; and these are represented by the multiple and superparticular ratios [n + 1 : n] from the tetrad. The number 8 obviously does not belong to the tetrad.235
These are the three means of Archytas. Eudoxus introduced his three means as the conceptual complements to the means of Archytas.
Ptolemy's evident perplexity over Archytas' system is in keeping with this supposed mental style of Archytas, for whatever text of Archytas Ptolemy was working from contained what for Ptolemy seems to have been a puzzling statement, to the effect that between the F# of Archytas' chromatic, and the G of his diatonic scales, there occurs the ratio 256 : 243. Ptolemy finds fault with this ratio for not being an epimore - but evidently he doesn't understand which epimores are the ones which define Archytas' system, (i.e. the epimores composed of the numbers one through ten, generated by the tetractys, and not primarily those which appear between neighboring notes of his scales.)
For example, the musical distances of 2/1, 3/1, 4/1, etc., in the ascending series are mirrored perfectly by a descending harmonic series from the same note: 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, etc. The musical distances are identical, and of course the intervals are inverted (3/1 gives SOL, while 1/3, its inverse, gives FA). The two sets of harmonics are complementary, and the multiplication of any harmonic interval by the corresponding subharmonic intervals always gives 1/1 (3/2 x 2/3 = 3/3= 1/1, for example).
Originally posted by fulllotusqigong
O.K. on the right-handed technology that refers to "racemization" of molecules.
Originally posted by fulllotusqigong
This qigong healing is real.
O.K. so what I am really doing is writing from music but music is right-brain dominant. Musicians are actually more left-brain dominant when they listen to music since they have the school training but music itself is a right-brain dominant perception and this is what I am communicating. It's not about literal word definitions -- words are a left-brain dominant perception.
Originally posted by fulllotusqigong
Sweet! Yes my friend was in the Peace Corps in Morocco . . .
I saw the Berbers while on a drive in the mountains of Marrakesh and I was really impressed. I loved the colorful clothing the women wore. We stopped the car and got out, and when we did we were led into one of the homes where they showed us a wooden mill, I guess it was. That was a cool experience.