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Why not just try and give God the benefit of the doubt FOR ONCE IN YOUR LIFETIME and "believe" that God "just might" be big enough, powerful enough, and obligated to preserve His words for all to read? The Bible even says the God Himself would keep His words for EVERY generation to have.
Why not give God just a little bit of credit since you say you are a Christian, and trust that He is able to keep His own words. I do, why can't you? Do you doubt God so much that He can't even keep His words straight? Seems like you have a heart and trust problem....not a head problem.
"For the word of God [is] living and powerful, and sharper than any two-edged sword, piercing even to the division of soul and spirit, and of joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart." - Hbr 4:12 NKJV
This is really all that needed to be said my friend.
If you wish to waste time debating the validity of the words of the dead, then you are in good company here. For myself, I have better things doing living and BEING the WORD.
With Love,
Your Brother
Originally posted by KJV1611
reply to post by Akragon
Soooooooooo...what are God's words....if they are not in the Holy Bible...? Care to explain? I can't wait to hear
Originally posted by KJV1611
reply to post by Akragon
fair enough. but i will assume that only Jesus's words are the words of God from past experiences talking with you. If i am wrong say so.
which is in error. Everyone that had a part in writing the Bible are alive in Heaven:
validity of the words of the dead
Originally posted by KJV1611
reply to post by Akragon
then I rest my case. If there is no final authority in regards to God's words to debate upon, then there is no argument.
Originally posted by KJV1611
reply to post by Akragon
Who are you now?!?!? Its like you have turned around completely Dang it madcat! Just come right out and SAY what you are alluding too! What do you find infallible and error less in the Bible, and what do you say is fallible?
I hold to the WHOLE Bible being infallible and perfect because of Bible verses that say it is, plus hundreds of scientific, prophetic, and archaeological proofs from the Bible itself. What is your position?
An extensive study? You mean you read it?
You apparently never read anything ABOUT the Bible.
“Genesis is a post-exilic work composed of a post-exilic priestly source (P) and non-priestly earlier sources which differ markedly from P in language, style and religious standpoint.”
“not literal history, but popular traditions of the past.”
“The case of the book of Daniel, if it is assigned to any other [writer], is different. Then it becomes a forged writing, and the intention was to deceive his immediate readers, though for their good.”
“The Old Testament was full of ‘folklore, defective history, half-savage morality.’”
Those quotes do not sound like Paul to me.
These are called the Pastoral letters because he is writing as if to a Bishop. There were no bishops in Paul's day. That was something that came later. If you think the first century Christians knew the letters, I'm sure you would be happy to quote them.
“First, there was not sufficient distinction made between the bishops and the presbyters, and attention was only paid to the meaning of the words: bishop is the equivalent of superintendent; presbyter is the equivalent of older man. . . . But little by little the distinction became clearer, designating with the name bishop the more important superintendents, who possessed the supreme priestly authority and the faculty to lay on hands and confer the priesthood.” (Historia de la Iglesia Católica [History of the Catholic Church])
“The first time a Bishop of Rome was called ‘Pope’ seems to have been in the third century, and the title was given to Pope Callistus . . . By the end of the fifth century ‘Pope’ usually meant the Bishop of Rome and no one else. It was not until the eleventh century, however, that a Pope could insist that the title applied to him alone.”—An Illustrated History of the Popes.
The word, Gnosis, comes into the letters in 1 Timothy 6:20 along with the word, antitheseis, which is the title of the book written By Marcion around 140 AD.
This can be found in Wikipedia.
Historical Views
“The inspired utterance says definitely that in later periods of time some will fall away from the faith, paying attention to misleading inspired utterances and teachings of demons.” (1 Timothy 4:1)
“ O Timothy, guard what is laid up in trust with you, turning away from the empty speeches that violate what is holy and from the contradictions of the falsely called “knowledge.” 21 For making a show of such [knowledge] some have deviated from the faith.
(my underline for emphasis)
“6 And so now YOU know the thing that acts as a restraint, with a view to his being revealed in his own due time. 7 True, the mystery of this lawlessness is already at work; but only till he who is right now acting as a restraint gets to be out of the way. 8 Then, indeed, the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will do away with by the spirit of his mouth and bring to nothing by the manifestation of his presence. 9 But the lawless one’s presence is according to the operation of Satan with every powerful work and lying signs and portents 10 and with every unrighteous deception for those who are perishing, as a retribution because they did not accept the love of the truth that they might be saved. 11 So that is why God lets an operation of error go to them, that they may get to believing the lie, 12 in order that they all may be judged because they did not believe the truth but took pleasure in unrighteousness.” (2 Thessalonians 2:6-12)
The other arguments can be found in Bart Ehrman's Forged: Writing in the Name of God--Why the Bible's Authors Are Not Who We Think They Are
You can buy it at Amazon or your local book store or borrow it at your public library.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by edmc^2
This is just ridiculous that you quote 1 Timothy to support the authenticity of the "letters" to Timothy.
“First, there was not sufficient distinction made between the bishops and the presbyters, and attention was only paid to the meaning of the words: bishop is the equivalent of superintendent; presbyter is the equivalent of older man. . . . But little by little the distinction became clearer, designating with the name bishop the more important superintendents, who possessed the supreme priestly authority and the faculty to lay on hands and confer the priesthood.” (Historia de la Iglesia Católica [History of the Catholic Church])