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Originally posted by hawkiye
reply to post by adjensen
"Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority; but the Father who dwells in me does his works." (John 14:10)
So there are two entities dwelling in Jesus him and the father. He also asked that the apostles and him be one as he and the father are one. So does this mean he wanted to dissolve all of them into himself. Or to be be one in purpose so to spea? Like a molecule is made up of single cells but comes together to create something greater then thier individual cells but they do not loose their cell identity. As an example We all know Water is made of two hydrogen cells and one oxygen cell to form something completely different then they are as cells.
The common Christian understanding of Christ and the Father being one misses the mark IMO. However I do agree in a sense he is God however he also said to the people Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? John 10:34
So he echos the eastern and other esoteric teachings that we are all God or part of God.
[edit on 4-7-2010 by hawkiye]
Originally posted by Maddogkull
reply to post by adjensen
What I get from NDE's is that everyone is forgiven untill they "see" chirst in his glory. Not from a book. God would know that a book cannot perseuade 6 billion people. When we see him when we die the choice is ours. People who do not see the light, finally call for god, then out of no where a light comes. God forgives. It does not matter how bad the crime, If you ask for forgivness and truley mean it, he will help you.
Originally posted by Maddogkull
reply to post by adjensen
Ahh, but you are wrong. Translations from Hebrew, Greek are different from English and other languages.
Originally posted by Maddogkull
The thing I always wondered about Jesus was what went on in his mind. And don't say you know because you do not. We only knew what he preached. You don’t think it is an ego boost to be told you are the lord and god?
Originally posted by Maddogkull
reply to post by adjensen
Constantine was around before 1200 A.D. It was already over a 1000 years after Jesus death. It was changed since then. There is no bible that was around in Constantine’s time, which we still have.
The problem with this is that, if Christ was not God, then his death means nothing, and there is no salvation. Which means that Christianity means nothing. Christ cannot merely be a "good teacher" who reflects God, because that isn't what he said he was. In John 20:28, Thomas calls him "My lord and my God", and there is no correction. Christ was crucified for claiming to be God, the highest blasphemy a Jew could commit. He didn't say "No, Caiaphas, I meant 'God is IN me'" or tell Pilate that this was all a big mistake. His apostles were martyred subsequently for doing the same thing. Would Peter, who denied Christ three times, have gone to his death proclaiming Christ to be God, on a lie?
Originally posted by Maddogkull
reply to post by adjensen
To tell you the truth, I do not really believe when you say you have studied NDEs because you would of truly saw the NDE I posted, and you would know that we are forgiven for the stuff that we endure on the earthly plane because we do not know. It is when we die is what matters. NDE’s never talk about religious dogma, hardly any. That is why Christians say NDE’s are from the devil, because NDEs do not fit in there world view. Not all Christians but some.
Originally posted by hawkiye
reply to post by adjensen
The problem with this is that, if Christ was not God, then his death means nothing, and there is no salvation. Which means that Christianity means nothing. Christ cannot merely be a "good teacher" who reflects God, because that isn't what he said he was. In John 20:28, Thomas calls him "My lord and my God", and there is no correction. Christ was crucified for claiming to be God, the highest blasphemy a Jew could commit. He didn't say "No, Caiaphas, I meant 'God is IN me'" or tell Pilate that this was all a big mistake. His apostles were martyred subsequently for doing the same thing. Would Peter, who denied Christ three times, have gone to his death proclaiming Christ to be God, on a lie?
But that is what he said you quoted it "the father is in me" I don't think the ridged Jews cared how it was phrased either way they saw it as blasphemy. His death wasn't for nothing it helped release people from their guilt but it did not literally take away their sins and the consequences there off. It was also an initiation for Jesus (Yeshua) to a fifth or sixth level master.
If Jesus was merely a prophet (or guru or whatever label you like,) he wouldn't have allowed any mention of this, wouldn't have said that he would sit at the right hand of the Father, another blasphemy (Stephen, you may recall, was stoned specifically for saying that he saw Jesus there.) A prophet, it is assumed, would be fairly well schooled in religion, and would stay within the law. Committing the worst form of blasphemy seems out of the question, leaving one with the options that either Christ was God, or he and his followers were liars of the worst sort.
Originally posted by monkeySEEmonkeyDO
I've always questioned why God, who is omni-present, allows the existence of people who will never make the decision to become "saved", and will go to hell.. According to the Bible, we all make our own decisions, and we are responsible for those decisions. But, if God KNOWS our decisions will place us in hell, then why would he allow us to come into existence? How can God "love us all" if God knows we are destined for hell?
What about the people who are born in total seclusion, and never have the chance to even hear about the Bible? Why would they be equally responsible compared to the ones who willfully ignore the Bible?
It all doesn't make sense to me...