posted on Dec, 31 2008 @ 03:17 AM
reply to post by defcon5
Palestine at the time was a territory which was 'limbo' and home to 98% Arabs at the time. But the name "Palestine" was a newer term at the time
to describe the same 'peoples' who inhabited the land.
Different interests were fighting for the designation of this land mass. But most everybody at that time knew what 'Palestine' was.
And a home or final resting point of displaced European Jews, was not something anyone imagined at the time.
I don't really know what your point is with all this. It seems you are hinting toward the "Possession is 9/10's of the law" sort of deal. Like,
"Hey, it was up for grabs".
That overlooks the fact that a land mass , overnight, turned from 5% inhabitants, to 50% ownership (of beach front property also I might add) for the
"Jews".
All recognized and okie dokie with US (ours truly) and Russia from the get go.
This is sorta like what we did to the Native Americans. We can easily say that they did not have "Sovereign" land, according to our laws right?
So I guess it was up for grabs?