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Originally posted by forsakenwayfarer
Hopefully no one takes offense to this, but I've never been one to call a spade a club.
Originally posted by stfger
Who cares?
Let people be people, why is everyone always trying to find a genetic reason for every behavior and personality trait.
Who cares what causes people to be gay, just accept people for who they are and stop trying to find a reason.
Identical twins, as you probably know, share all of their genes. Non-identical, or fraternal twins share half their genes... the same rate as other brothers and sisters. Finally, adopted kids share no genetic material, but are raised in the same environment from an early age. A common way of looking for genetic link for any trait is to compare the concordance rate in such pairs of siblings...
Researchers found that the concordance rate for homosexuality is highest among identical twins, lower among fraternal and lowest in adopted siblings. Such a pattern is evidence for a genetic basis to homosexuality... the closer you are genetically to your sibling, the more likely you both are to be gay. If you are not genetically related, you are less likley to both be gay, even though you grew up in the same home.
Originally posted by WhatTheory
Originally posted by I_AM_that_I_AM
Gay being a mental disorder was never proven by the APA at all.
In fact, it was a failure to actually prove that it was an actual mental disorder that caused the APA to listen to gay's and change the classification.
That is just not true.
Why are you trying to be disingenuous?
–adjective lacking in frankness, candor, or sincerity; falsely or hypocritically ingenuous; insincere: Her excuse was rather disingenuous.
It was proven through scientific means that is was a mental disorder and the only reason they removed it was because of political pressure. This is fact and has been well documented.
I posted a few links, did you read them. Just google and you will find much more.
Originally posted by weedwhacker
reply to post by doctormcauley
Am I the only one who sees the fallacy in this reasoning???
Originally posted by weedwhacker
reply to post by doctormcauley
Am I the only one who sees the fallacy in this reasoning???
Anyone?? Buehler? Buehler?
Television!?!!!!!! So, by this alleged "logic" homosexuality has only existed since 1950???
"doctor", indeed.....heal thyself!!
Originally posted by Sunsetspawn
Originally posted by forsakenwayfarer
Hopefully no one takes offense to this, but I've never been one to call a spade a club.
I bet this guy knows exactly what you do call a spade...
[edit on 6/23/2008 by Sunsetspawn]
Originally posted by djerwulfe
reply to post by endrun
Why don't you point me to the reams of your peer-reviewed publications? Obvioulsy, because you speak with so much authority, you MUST be a prestigious research scientist with an imposing resume.'
Only a person of science with an immense catalog of achievement would be so bold as to react to statements without even knowing what those statements actually were.
Wait . . . is this Dr. Watson? Dr. Watson, are you messing with me?
You ->
Originally posted by doctormcauley
It could be that all the gay stuff of television helps turn children into homos.
This is all about the Bilderberg population reduction agenda and destruction of the family, which is not a gay agenda, but homos are being used to carry it out.
If gays didn't know they were gay, they would take out their sexual addiction on our women and just imagine how many kids there would be with all of the Unprotected sex. And they obviously aren't going to marry all of those women...
If gays, were strictly gay and practiced only gayness and society had no gay propaganda, then the gay gene wouldn't have lasted more than a few generations. So being gay isn't a gene, and if it is then the homos have found their way of working around it.... But it isn't genetic so who cares...