a reply to:
Sheye
- Does the Bible teach that all who are said to be part of the Trinity are eternal, none having a beginning?
Col. 1:15, 16,
RS: “He [Jesus Christ] is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation; for in him all things were created,
in heaven and on earth.” In what sense is Jesus Christ “the first-born of all creation”?
(1) Trinitarians say that “first-born” here
means prime, most excellent, most distinguished; thus Christ would be understood to be, not part of creation, but the most distinguished in relation
to those who were created. If that is so, and if the Trinity doctrine is true, why are the Father and the holy spirit not also said to be the
firstborn of all creation? But the Bible applies this expression only to the Son. According to the customary meaning of “firstborn,” it indicates
that Jesus is the eldest in Jehovah’s family of sons.
(2) Before Colossians 1:15, the expression “the firstborn of” occurs upwards of 30
times in the Bible, and in each instance that it is applied to living creatures the same meaning applies—the firstborn is part of the group. “The
firstborn of Israel” is one of the sons of Israel; “the firstborn of Pharaoh” is one of Pharaoh’s family; “the firstborn of beast” are
themselves animals. What, then, causes some to ascribe a different meaning to it at Colossians 1:15? Is it Bible usage or is it a belief to which they
already hold and for which they seek proof?
(3) Does Colossians 1:16, 17 (
RS) exclude Jesus from having been created, when it says “in
him all things were created . . . all things were created through him and for him”? The Greek word here rendered “all things” is
panʹta,
an inflected form of
pas. At Luke 13:2,
RS renders this “all . . . other”;
JB reads “any other”;
NE says “anyone
else.” (See also Luke 21:29 in
NE and Philippians 2:21 in
JB.) In harmony with everything else that the Bible says regarding the Son,
NW assigns the same meaning to
panʹta at Colossians 1:16, 17 so that it reads, in part, “by means of him
all other things were
created . . .
All other things have been created through him and for him.” Thus he is shown to be a created being, part of the creation
produced by God.
Rev. 1:1; 3:14,
RS: “The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him . . . ‘And to the angel of the church in La-odicea write: “The
words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning [Greek,
ar·kheʹ] of God’s creation.”’” (
KJ, Dy, CC, and
NW, as well as others, read similarly.) Is that rendering correct? Some take the view that what is meant is that the Son was ‘the beginner of
God’s creation,’ that he was its ‘ultimate source.’ But Liddell and Scott’s
Greek-English Lexicon lists “beginning” as its first
meaning of
ar·kheʹ. (Oxford, 1968, p. 252) The logical conclusion is that the one being quoted at Revelation 3:14 is a creation, the first of
God’s creations, that he had a beginning. Compare Proverbs 8:22, where, as many Bible commentators agree, the Son is referred to as wisdom
personified. According to
RS, NE, and
JB, the one there speaking is said to be “created.”)
Prophetically, with reference to the Messiah, Micah 5:2 (
KJ) says his “goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.” Dy reads:
“his going forth is from the beginning, from the days of eternity.” Does that make him the same as God? It is noteworthy that, instead of saying
“days of eternity,”
RS renders the Hebrew as “ancient days”;
JB, “days of old”;
NW, “days of time indefinite.”
Viewed in the light of Revelation 3:14, discussed above, Micah 5:2 does not prove that Jesus was without a beginning.
- Does the Bible teach that none of those who are said to be included in the Trinity is greater or less than another, that all are equal, that all
are almighty?
Mark 13:32,
RS: “Of that day or that hour no ones knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.” (Of course, that
would not be the case if Father, Son, and Holy Spirit were coequal, comprising one Godhead. And if, as some suggest, the Son was limited by his human
nature from knowing, the question remains, Why did the Holy Spirit not know?)
Matt. 20:20-23,
RS: “The mother of the sons of Zebedee . . . said to him [Jesus], ‘Command that these two sons of mine may sit, one at your
right hand and one at your left, in your kingdom.’ But Jesus answered, . . . ‘You will drink my cup, but to sit at my right hand and at my left is
not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by my Father.’” (How strange, if, as claimed, Jesus is God! Was Jesus here
merely answering according to his “human nature”? If, as Trinitarians say, Jesus was truly “God-man”—
both God and man, not one or the
other—would it truly be consistent to resort to such an explanation? Does not Matthew 20:23 rather show that the Son is not equal to the Father,
that the Father has reserved some prerogatives for himself?)
Matt. 12:31, 32,
RS: “Every sin and blasphemy will be forgiven men, but the blasphemy against the Spirit will not be forgiven. And whoever
says a word against the Son of man will be forgiven; but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age
to come.” (If the Holy Spirit were a person and were God, this text would flatly contradict the Trinity doctrine, because it would mean that in some
way the Holy Spirit was greater than the Son. Instead, what Jesus said shows that the Father, to whom the “Spirit” belonged, is greater than
Jesus, the Son of man.)
John 14:28,
RS: “[Jesus said:] If you loved me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I.”
1 Cor. 11:3,
RS: “I want you to understand that the head of every man is Christ, the head of a woman is her husband, and the head of Christ
is God.” (Clearly, then, Christ is not God, and God is of superior rank to Christ. It should be noted that this was written about 55 C.E., some 22
years after Jesus returned to heaven. So the truth here stated applies to the relationship between God and Christ in heaven.)
1 Cor. 15:27, 28
RS: “‘God has put all things in subjection under his [Jesus’] feet.’ But when it says, ‘All things are put in
subjection under him,’ it is plain that he is excepted who put all things under him. When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will
also be subjected to him who put all things under him, that God may be everything to every one.”
The Hebrew word
Shad·daiʹ and the Greek word
Pan·to·kraʹtor are both translated “Almighty.” Both original-language words are
repeatedly applied to Jehovah, the Father. (Ex. 6:3; Rev. 19:6) Neither expression is ever applied to either the Son or the holy spirit.
- Does the Bible teach that each of those said to be part of the Trinity is God?
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