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Where does it state that some do not accept it, Tertullain?
Originally posted by roger_pearse
You have yet to explain:
1. why the MC also says that some do not accept it
Originally posted by SomewhereinBetween
Tertullain,
I was writing a response to your verbiage, and realised that you come across as a man-child stripped of all dignity. Reduce it to psycho-babble analyses if it props up your ego, I am not interested in playing in your sandbox since the topic is not about me or you and who can best insult the other. When you are ready to debate the premise of religion, let me know.
Originally posted by SomewhereinBetween
Originally posted by roger_pearse
You have yet to explain:
1. why the MC also says that some do not accept it
Where does it state that some do not accept it, Tertullain?
Originally posted by roger_pearse
Just to clarify the meaning of this sentence: the author makes it clear earlier that the Apocalypse of John is accepted; "For John also, though he wrote in the Apocalypse to seven churches, nevertheless he speaks to them all."...
The apocalpyses also of John, and of Peter, only we receive, which (singular) some from us to be read in the church are not willing.
That only one of the two apocalypses is meant by the author is indicated by 'quam' (singular); the word order indicates the second, and the earlier statement treating John as author of the Revelation confirms this.
Therefore the interpretation that only one of the two is meant, is not sound, firstly because they were both accepted, and secondly because of the order as per above.
And my Lord answered me and said to me: Hast thou understood that which I said unto thee before? It is permitted unto thee to know that concerning which thou askest: but thou must not tell that which thou hearest unto the sinners lest they transgress the more, and sin.'
Originally posted by SomewhereinBetween
Originally posted by roger_pearse
Just to clarify the meaning of this sentence: the author makes it clear earlier that the Apocalypse of John is accepted; "For John also, though he wrote in the Apocalypse to seven churches, nevertheless he speaks to them all."...
The apocalpyses also of John, and of Peter, only we receive, which (singular) some from us to be read in the church are not willing.
That only one of the two apocalypses is meant by the author is indicated by 'quam' (singular); the word order indicates the second, and the earlier statement treating John as author of the Revelation confirms this.
The words are best served up in context, and neither you nor your compatriot seem to grasp the hesitance to preach this gospel to the masses.
I can only presume it is because you have extended minimal effort into reading and or understanding the text, for Peter declares:
Therefore the interpretation that only one of the two is meant, is not sound, firstly because they were both accepted, and secondly because of the order as per above.
And my Lord answered me and said to me: Hast thou understood that which I said unto thee before? It is permitted unto thee to know that concerning which thou askest: but thou must not tell that which thou hearest unto the sinners lest they transgress the more, and sin.'
I rest my case.
Context? Where?
Originally posted by roger_pearseI'm afraid I don't understand this comment at all. I'm the one offering context here. You don't explain the second point.
Of course it escapes you, why even your interpretation in the previous quote is incorrect.
The logic of this -- that a citation from the AofP (presumably) proves that the MC did or did not mean one rather than two texts -- escapes me.
Ah, judge and attorney you are.
Case dismissed, I'm afraid.
et vous aussi.
All the best,
Originally posted by XphilesPhan
not to go off topic, but somewhereinbetween, your signature is a little misleading as i believ it goe "and you shall have no other Gods before me, not savior." just thought id point that out.
You point out incorrectly. Exodus is not the reference, it is Isaiah 43:11, and as such, my signature stands as represented.
Originally posted by XphilesPhan
not to go off topic, but somewhereinbetween, your signature is a little misleading as i believ it goe "and you shall have no other Gods before me, not savior." just thought id point that out.
Originally posted by quango
Several of them appear to be Jews, writing Jewish histories and whatnot - I don't think I'd mention a renegade who claimed to speak with God and claimed to be the messiah - it's embarassing and anti-noteworthy.
Shimon Bar-Kokhba obviously doesn't ring a bell.
Originally posted by RazorDragon3000
Though Jesus linage did give him more credence,
According to Christianity, no it doesn't. Jesus was a miracle child thus not able to claim the tribal lineage of Joseph. According to Judaism, that would be the ONLY messianic fulfillment.
If he was Gods son
All Jewish males were and are sons of G-d.
Originally posted by Iasion
But several of these writers DID write about renegade Messiahs, e.g. the Talmuds has many cases of false Messiahs, Josephus wrote about dozens of minor prohets and renegades who lead Jews astray.
Such figures ARE recorded in history - funny how Jesus never gets a mention.
The argument that the Jews would not write about something that is embarassing is outright nonsense - their histories are filled with many embarassing failures and disasters.
And Jews are ashamed of those things. Each year the entire Torah is read including all of the vile stuff. There is no picking and choosing this scripture to back up that scripture to back up the first 2/3s of that scripture.
Originally posted by FlyersFan
James wasn't Jesus brother. He was a blood relative, a cousin
perhaps, but not the son of Mary and Joseph. If Mary had children
other than Christ, then Christ wouldn't have left her to the care of
John when he died on the cross. Mary would have gone to the
care of one of her other sons, and Jesus wouldn't have had to
have given her into the care of John.
Revelation 12:1-6, 13-17...particularly verse 17. "Then the dragon was angry with the woman, and went off to make war on the rest of her offspring, on those who keep the commandments of God and bear testimony to Jesus. And he stood on the sand of the sea." Are these her other children or the church?
If there had been other sons then Christ doing this would have gone against every Jewish sacred tradition and it would have insulted his family. He wouldn't have done that.
Why wouldn't he have done that? His family didn't believe him. NT says so. But Jesus wasn't a law abiding Jew so he most certainly would and could have done it.
Originally posted by XphilesPhan
not to go off topic, but somewhereinbetween, your signature is a little misleading as i believ it goe "and you shall have no other Gods before me, not savior." just thought id point that out.
Originally posted by ShawNee922
Proving Jesus did or did not exist has no bearing on the Christian faith.
I know many Christians who will say otherwise. If he doesn't exist, then is the entire NT not false? What about the salvation and promises? The people who rely solely on being 'saved' would without a doubt be lost because they would have nothing else. IMO they focus too much on the religion and living to die in order to obtain their glory rather than doing good things, living a good life and establishing a relationship with G-d.
The man from galilee, who many know as Jesus, never claimed to be a Christian nor the son of god...
He most certainly could have claimed to be the son of G-d as all Jewish men are the sons of G-d.
Tearing down Christianity does not prove Jesus never existed, in fact it is a good bet that if the man jesus was living today he would join in the quest to tear it down. The same way he attempted to tear down Judaism, another false religion , same as Christianity, same as them all ...
Jesus being a Pharisee did not agree with the rabbinical Judaism but that by no means says that he was trying to get rid of Judaism. If in fact Jesus lived and uttered these words, "I did not come to abolish the law" shows just the opposite. The school of thought between the Pharisees and Sadducees were so different. I suppose it's fortunate for the Jews that they no longer exist. IMO, the only religions that are false are the ones who think their way is the only one. And honestly, that could be left up to the individual and the religion they are practicing. I know one Christian who takes away a completely different message being preached on Sunday morning than her sister sitting next to her. Religion is man made and our way of attempting to connect with G-d. The overall principle behind it is not bad as it can be used to teach a 'better' way of life but again, it's left up to the individual and how they see it.
I do not buy for one minute anything said here to support the non existance of Jesus the man. It is all vague and opinionated and to go one further the author gives no reference to anyone from the time period infatically denying the existance of Jesus the man..
One cannot debunk what one does not know. A person would have to have heard about Jesus and his teachings in order to deny them, right? There are certain elements to the mosaich that did not happen and since there was a travel/communication issue, not everyone could necessarily know about Jesus but they could see that things didn't happen as promised by G-d. And there were a slew of false messiahs. Surely the Talmud writers would have mentioned the one to come along and be the source of persecution for many Jews, Christians and non-Christians in the years to come.