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originally posted by: Akragon
originally posted by: namelesss
originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: namelesss
Yeah... except he didn't say "As I Am, so can you Be"
so...
Perhaps you should read the book?
www.libertynet.org...
'GOD condescended to impute unto men, because of the hardness of their hearts, this Love that will melt a heart of stone. I put before you a Love that is beyond utterance and this Love is a sample and example for men and women in all walks of life that you may be even as I AM: laying no mortal claims on any material thing; relaxing your conscious mentality and recognizing all things are given unto you; allowing the CHRIST within you to realize HIS at-one-ment as being you, as being the inheritor of all that you have, and hence, you being an inheritor of all that is in the world.'
Well no... perhaps you should
that is not from the bible... perhaps some sort of stitched up quote using pieces of the bible...
but regardless that isn't biblical...
originally posted by: namelesss
originally posted by: Akragon
originally posted by: namelesss
originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: namelesss
Yeah... except he didn't say "As I Am, so can you Be"
so...
Perhaps you should read the book?
www.libertynet.org...
'GOD condescended to impute unto men, because of the hardness of their hearts, this Love that will melt a heart of stone. I put before you a Love that is beyond utterance and this Love is a sample and example for men and women in all walks of life that you may be even as I AM: laying no mortal claims on any material thing; relaxing your conscious mentality and recognizing all things are given unto you; allowing the CHRIST within you to realize HIS at-one-ment as being you, as being the inheritor of all that you have, and hence, you being an inheritor of all that is in the world.'
Well no... perhaps you should
that is not from the bible... perhaps some sort of stitched up quote using pieces of the bible...
but regardless that isn't biblical...
I read the book about 40 times and know what is in it.
If you want to know what is in it, perhaps YOU should read it.
I am not going to read the entire thing again to find the quote for you.
I know it's there.
Have a nice night.
originally posted by: Akragon
originally posted by: namelesss
originally posted by: Akragon
originally posted by: namelesss
originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: namelesss
Yeah... except he didn't say "As I Am, so can you Be"
so...
Perhaps you should read the book?
www.libertynet.org...
'GOD condescended to impute unto men, because of the hardness of their hearts, this Love that will melt a heart of stone. I put before you a Love that is beyond utterance and this Love is a sample and example for men and women in all walks of life that you may be even as I AM: laying no mortal claims on any material thing; relaxing your conscious mentality and recognizing all things are given unto you; allowing the CHRIST within you to realize HIS at-one-ment as being you, as being the inheritor of all that you have, and hence, you being an inheritor of all that is in the world.'
Well no... perhaps you should
that is not from the bible... perhaps some sort of stitched up quote using pieces of the bible...
but regardless that isn't biblical...
I read the book about 40 times and know what is in it.
If you want to know what is in it, perhaps YOU should read it.
I am not going to read the entire thing again to find the quote for you.
I know it's there.
Have a nice night.
lol...
Please give me the passage...
Good luck
originally posted by: Akragon
originally posted by: namelesss
originally posted by: Akragon
originally posted by: namelesss
originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: namelesss
Yeah... except he didn't say "As I Am, so can you Be"
so...
Perhaps you should read the book?
www.libertynet.org...
'GOD condescended to impute unto men, because of the hardness of their hearts, this Love that will melt a heart of stone. I put before you a Love that is beyond utterance and this Love is a sample and example for men and women in all walks of life that you may be even as I AM: laying no mortal claims on any material thing; relaxing your conscious mentality and recognizing all things are given unto you; allowing the CHRIST within you to realize HIS at-one-ment as being you, as being the inheritor of all that you have, and hence, you being an inheritor of all that is in the world.'
Well no... perhaps you should
that is not from the bible... perhaps some sort of stitched up quote using pieces of the bible...
but regardless that isn't biblical...
I read the book about 40 times and know what is in it.
If you want to know what is in it, perhaps YOU should read it.
I am not going to read the entire thing again to find the quote for you.
I know it's there.
Have a nice night.
lol...
Please give me the passage...
Good luck
This last verse shows the Oneness of God So if the Father is a he, and the Word is a he then the Holy Ghost also is a he because they are one.
John 14:16, 26 And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; . . . But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.
John 15:26 But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:
Acts 2:33 Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear.
1 John 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
originally posted by: OccamsRazor04
a reply to: GnosticusMaximus
The Word was there in the beginning before there was anything but God ... so saying the Word was divine (God) or the Word was God (divine) is really two ways of saying the same message, plus context matters, and it's clear in context the message is the Word is God.
Coptic John 1:1 -- Ambiguous?
According to Dr. Jason D. BeDuhn, the Greek text of John 1:1 is, grammatically, not a difficult verse to translate. "It follows familiar, ordinary structures of Greek expression." (Truth in Translation, 2003, p. 132) Dr. BeDuhn would render the Greek of John 1:1c literally as "and the Word was a god," or in "a slightly polished" variant carrying the same meaning, "and the Word was divine." According to BeDuhn, the traditional, Latin Vulgate-inspired reading formalized by the King James Version, "and the Word was God," is the least accurate rendering of the Greek text, a reading that violates the grammar and syntax.
The same conclusion can be readily drawn about the Sahidic Coptic translation of John 1:1c. This is a fairly literal translation of the Greek, made in the 2nd or 3rd century of our Common Era, at a time and place where the Koine Greek of the New Testament was still a living language and widely understood in Egypt.
In regular Coptic syntax, auw neunoute pe pSaje means, straightforwardly, "and the Word was a god." And just as the Greek sentence at John 1:1c may express a qualitative force, the Coptic syntactical unit which corresponds to that Greek sentence may express an adjectival force. In other words, both may also be rendered as "and the Word was divine." (Cf. Bentley Layton, Coptic in 20 Lessons, 2006/7, pp. 7, 34) But is this ambiguity? No, for as Dr. BeDuhn states, both translations carry "the same basic meaning."
Still, some scholars are not satisfied with even their preferred "qualitative" meaning for John 1:1c, unless they can define "qualitative" as synonymous with "definite." For example, Daniel B. Wallace, in Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (1996, p. 269) prefers a qualitative rendering for John 1:1c, but then goes on to say that "and the Word was God" is the simplest, most straightforward translation. That is a non sequitur.
John 1:1c is not carrying on a Greek philosophical dissertation about "persons" or "essences." But it is making an important distinction between "God" (Greek, ho theos; Coptic, p.noute) and another entity whom John describes simply with the Greek word theos (Coptic, ou.noute). The noun theos in the Greek of John 1:1c is pre-verbal and anarthrous. The noun noute in the Coptic of John 1:1c is in a regular indefinite syntactical unit. The force in both cases is the same: the Word is being distinguished from God, not identified as being God.
Further, John 1:1b emphasizes that this Word is "with" (Greek) or "in the presence of" (Coptic) God.
If, as some Trinitarian scholars assert, the idea of a qualitative rendering highlights the "nature" or "characteristics" of the Word rather than his identity, but this Word shared all the attributes and qualities that God (= the Father) has, then logically, the Word would be the Father. Yet, mainstream Trinitarians deride that idea as Sabellianism or modalism, "heresies" condemned by the church.
Is Coptic John 1:1 ambiguous? Not at all. But to be sure, it is the Trinitarian scholars who are forcing John 1:1 to be "ambiguous," not the Greek nor the Coptic text. The Greek text is not definite ("the Word was God") and neither is the Coptic text. Both the Greek and the Coptic texts agree that "the Word was a god" or "the Word was divine," which mean essentially the same thing.
A non sequitur (Latin for "it does not follow"), in formal logic, is an invalid argument.[1] In a non sequitur, the conclusion could be either true or false (because there is a disconnect between the premises and the conclusion), but the argument nonetheless asserts the conclusion to be true and is thus fallacious.
What's Athanasius Got to Do With It?
Another of the basically irrelevant Trinitarian objections against translating the Sahidic Coptic of John 1:1c as "and the Word was a god" -- which is clearly what it literally says -- is that the Coptic translators could not possibly have "meant" to say that.
The reason given is that the dynamic 4th century Coptic scholar, theologian, bishop and "saint" Athanasius was the staunch adherent of Trinitarianism. And the Coptic Church itself is Trinitarian.
That argument may be of some value in refuting the inaccurate charge that everything Coptic must, by definition, also be Gnostic.
But it has no bearing on positively identifying the theology of the 2nd or 3rd century Sahidic Coptic translators, and no bearing on identifying their possible theological presuppositions while translating John 1:1.
Coptic scholar and translator George W. Horner, in his classic Coptic New Testament English translation, postulates a 2nd century date for the Coptic New Testament. Other scholars, and the Anchor Bible Dictionary give a 3rd century date.
Coptic Church tradition also dates the Coptic New Testament to the 2nd century, "under the supervision of St. Pantaenus [late second century] and St. Clement [160-215]." Therefore, it is quite possible that the Sahidic Coptic translation of the Gospel of John predated Athanasius [300-373] by a couple of generations.
So, what's Athanasius got to do with it?
And as for the Coptic Church, it has not always been a Trinitarian church. Its tradition ascribes its founding to the Gospel writer "Saint" Mark, and there is nothing Trinitarian in Mark's Gospel.
Besides, there was another famous (or infamous, according to one's view) presbyter and theologian in 4th century Alexandria, Egypt. His name was Arius, the noted opponent of Trinitarianism, whose doctrine "was once at least as popular as the doctine that Jesus is God." (Richard Rubenstein, When Jesus Became God, p. 7). Before Nicea (325 CE) many Coptic and other bishops considered Arius' theology to be "orthodox."
So, IF a case could be made for Athanasian Trinitarian influence upon the Sahidic Coptic translators, a similar case could be made for Arian, non-Trinitarian influence.
In point of fact, however, the Sahidic Coptic translators are anonymous. We don't know who they were. Therefore, it is impossible to state dogmatically what their theological presuppositions were, or even if their theological presuppositions influenced their translation of John 1:1.
It is just as likely that they simply made a fair, honest, and accurate translation of John's Greek as they understood it: ne.u.noute pe p.shaje, "And the Word was a god."
Attempts to link Athanasian Trinitarianism to the Sahidic Coptic translators is shown to be just another smokescreen put up by apologists for whom Coptic John 1:1 is extremely unsettling and inconvenient.
Translating The Indefinite Article at Coptic John 1:1c
Some Trinitarian apologists are trying hard to make the Coptic text of John 1:1c support a qualitative meaning rather than an indefinite one. They have to acknowledge the witness of Coptic grammarians who have said that "the Word was a god" is a perfectly legitimate translation there, because the Coptic indefinite article is clearly present.
But just like they look at YHWH in the Hebrew text of the Bible and yet come away denying that God has a unique Name, or insist that His name is Lord, they try to deny what is plainly in front of their face: Coptic has the indefinite article; the indefinite article is used at John 1:1c; and the regular translation of the Coptic indefinite article into English is "a."
'It's all so difficult to understand,' they opine. 'It will take years and years of Coptic study to fathom the "mystery" of the Coptic indefinite article'! For example, one such apologist writes:
"The grammar, alone, cannot prove that the Word was 'a god,' 'a God,' or 'had the quality of God' in the minds of the Coptic translators. Indeed, a thorough study of the Sahidic Translation, based on the published MSS, is needed to even begin such a task."
I agree that there should be a thorough study of the Sahidic translation, but not because this is needed to understand how the Coptic translators used the indefinite article. Just about any currently-present Coptic grammar book explains that quite well. Also, there is Coptic scholar Reverend George W. Horner's 1911 English translation of the Coptic text, still available, though hard to find.
In just the book of John, how does Horner's English translation render Coptic sentence constructions that are just like John 1:1c? Well, let's look at a few. The Coptic construction found at John 1:1c is the neu...pe, construction: neunoute pe pSaje, with noute being the Coptic word for "god," and pSaje meaning "the word."
Look at some other neu....pe constructions, translated into English by Horner:
John 8:44 neureFHetb rwme pe = “was a murderer”
John 12:6 neureFjioue pe = “was a thief”
John 18:40 neusoone pe = “was a robber.”
So why should John 1:1c, neunoute pe be rendered as anything in English other than “was a god”????
In each of the other instances of the indefinite article before the noun in the Gospel of John, Horner accurately translates the indefinite article into English as “a” and does not put any brackets around the “a, ” as he does, without any grammatical cause, at John 1:1c.
After years of insisting that the anarthrous QEOS of John 1:1c is definite, the new theory of Trinitarian apologists is that it is "qualitative." But then they try to define "qualitativeness" to mean definiteness anyway! This is a disingenuous attempt to put definiteness out by the front door, while slipping it back in through the back door, and it doesn't work.
An indefinite construction can be "qualitative" in meaning when translated into English, and to say "the Word was divine" does not actually differ from saying "the Word was a god." But it does distinctly differ from saying "the Word was God."
Therefore, whereas the Coptic sentence at John 1:1c literally reads, "the Word was a god," it would not be incorrect to convey that into English also as "the Word was divine." But this is not to be overlooked or glossed over: The Coptic of John 1:1c definitely and specifically does not say "the Word was God." Indeed, that is ruled out by the Coptic indefinite article in that verse.
And you don't need to examine any further than the rest of the Coptic Gospel of John to affirm that point. Though, of course, it is quite beneficial to 'make a thorough study of the Sahidic translation' for other insights, or for the sheer joy of doing so.
Sorry, I really do not care whether you have read it or not.
I don't need to prove it to you.
I am NOT going to read it again just so you can argue from your ignorance and bias.
When/if you read it, you'll find it.
That's it.
"But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God"
Means exactly what I said!
Still want to argue?
We are all One, all inclusive! That means that We and Jesus are One!
originally posted by: Seede
a reply to: namelesss
We are all One, all inclusive! That means that We and Jesus are One!
You can be one in spirit with Jesus after you pass the judgment and become justified.
But until that time you are hoping through faith that you will become a son/daughter of the Most High. Nevertheless you will never be equal to Jesus --
Act_4:12 Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.
Joh 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
There is only one Begotten Son of God who is Jesus. None of the created can be begotten. Jesus was not created but was conceived by The Most High.
originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: namelesss
Sorry, I really do not care whether you have read it or not.
I don't need to prove it to you.
I am NOT going to read it again just so you can argue from your ignorance and bias.
When/if you read it, you'll find it.
That's it.
"But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God"
Means exactly what I said!
Still want to argue?
yup...
go back to your first quote.... I said JESUS didn't ever say that...
You quoted John and Paul... No Jesus...
Not to mention the fact that he already called us gods ("children of the most high" Psalm 82)
Why would we need to become what we already are?
Good try though