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originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
a reply to: imjack
Can I just call men 'her' and 'she' and women 'he' and 'him' in general conversation and act like it's not offensive?
If you would be fined for doing otherwise, would you not be concerned?
originally posted by: imjack
originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
a reply to: imjack
Can I just call men 'her' and 'she' and women 'he' and 'him' in general conversation and act like it's not offensive?
If you would be fined for doing otherwise, would you not be concerned?
I would be concerned with the integrity of people. It's pretty childish to do the opposite of something someone asks, specifically because they ask.
If someone has the respect to call someone else 'professor' how far away from that is this concept?
I don't see myself being fined in the future, because I don't hold that disrespect. The question is a hypothetical contrast, because calling someone transgender the wrong pronoun purposefully is already a 'thing'.
originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
a reply to: Abysha
It has no basis in English grammar. It's usage is common, but purely colloquial.
originally posted by: Abysha
originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
a reply to: Abysha
It has no basis in English grammar. It's usage is common, but purely colloquial.
1500's usage as a gender-neutral singular pronoun isn't a "basis in English grammar" to you? It's not new and it's more than colloquial.
originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
originally posted by: imjack
originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
a reply to: imjack
Can I just call men 'her' and 'she' and women 'he' and 'him' in general conversation and act like it's not offensive?
If you would be fined for doing otherwise, would you not be concerned?
I would be concerned with the integrity of people. It's pretty childish to do the opposite of something someone asks, specifically because they ask.
If someone has the respect to call someone else 'professor' how far away from that is this concept?
I don't see myself being fined in the future, because I don't hold that disrespect. The question is a hypothetical contrast, because calling someone transgender the wrong pronoun purposefully is already a 'thing'.
Would you address them as Herr Hitler because they asked?
If I respected them and they were my friend, I would would accompany them. But someone demanding that you conform your thought and language to theirs is tyranny.
originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
originally posted by: Abysha
originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
a reply to: Abysha
It has no basis in English grammar. It's usage is common, but purely colloquial.
1500's usage as a gender-neutral singular pronoun isn't a "basis in English grammar" to you? It's not new and it's more than colloquial.
I'm an admitted grammar Nazi. I'm sorry but a plural pronoun does not logically stand for singular nouns. But yes, when there is no specific nor previously identified noun, I also use "they" and "them", as is obvious by my previous post.
originally posted by: cavtrooper7
I am IMAGINED KLINGON warlord so ALL SHOULD pronounce "LORD" before my glorious fictious name with the SAME practical AUTHORITY...
offend ME and I can kill you it's my CULTURAL belief now....well SOME any way...ain't gonna just DIE without a DAMN good reason for it....
CAN'T wait to drag some poor sepcieist into court....
originally posted by: ColdWisdom
Here is how it works for me:
If you have a penis, I'll call you sir.
If you have a vagina, I'll call you mam.
It doesn't matter to me when you got your penis or vagina, only what sexual organs you have in the moment that I am addressing you.
originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
a reply to: imjack
To be fair, the law in question includes names and titles.
The issue is that the subjective feelings of this person determines my behavior by law. You determine how I speak, and I must conform or be penalized. Is it a sign of respect and decency to coerce others under threat of penalty to call you what you wish?
there is a reason it is specifically adds "with reference to social and cultural differences". It's because it's speaking to the stereotypes of male and female. Not literal, even though this is included. For example, it's stereotypical for a male to have a penis. That is how the word is drawn to sex. Not all males have a penis, and not all males that lack a penis are transgender. Being able to reproduce or not, or even having a Penis, is not what makes you male gender. There are many sets of Chromosomes, however only two Genders, so it's not that either. What makes someone male or female is social stereotypical representations of the biological functions, that don't represent the gender role in caliber on their own anyway. Giving birth hardly makes someone a 'mother'.
the state of being male or female (typically used with reference to social and cultural differences rather than biological ones).
originally posted by: Aazadan
originally posted by: IkNOwSTuff
If I saw a Tranny as a courtesy I would call her she but the second anyone demanded or even asked me to call them some nonsensical made up term id just call them "F*** off moron" and move away, I try to spend as little time around crazy people as possible
Gender neutral pronouns aren't made up terms. The projections are that within 20-30 years English won't be using his/hers/etc... anymore anyways, it will all be gender neutral.
originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
a reply to: Abysha
Dictionaries define according to usage. That says nothing about the argument. The consensus also defined the earth as the centre of the universe. They turned out to be wrong. Either way, Consensus is what they demand, and it's for political reasons, as is evident by the Oxford Dictionary's reasons for suggesting "they", despite better and more grammatically correct ways of solving the problem.
originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
a reply to: imjack
None of that is the point nor my concern. My concern is state coercion to determine not only what cannot be said, but what must be said. This doesn't just apply to the very few people who are transgendered, but to anyone and everyone.
originally posted by: LesMisanthrope
a reply to: Abysha
No they use it because there is no particular or previously identified subject. They could have corrected their grammar easily by not using a singular pronoun. It never had anything to do with gender identity, until political influence deemed grammar sexist.