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Originally posted by Joecroft
Why is it Gods will that they the Kings (only) if you prefer, (although I still contend that Kings ultimately drag the nations and people along with them) are to give their Kingdom to the Beast…?
Originally posted by DISRAELI
I did offer a response to that question, when I first brought in the "kings" point. You did not notice it, because you were still insistent on changing "they" into "we".
Originally posted by DISRAELI
As for God putting things into their hearts, this is the same kind of issue as God "hardening the heart of Pharaoh".
I think this is making the point that even the conscious enemies of God can do no more than he allows them to.
Originally posted by Joecroft
When we know from the complete context, that the Beast is using the Harlot to deceive the Nations, the People, and the Kings…they are all tied together…they are all one mind as verse 13 puts it…
Originally posted by DISRAELI
But this generalisation does not include the "saints".
Originally posted by DISRAELI
Revelation makes that clear. That is why the Harlot is "drunk with the blood of the saints""; that is, she colludes in the persecution of the saints described in ch13. That is the whole point of this book, the reaction of the Beast and the Harlot to the fact that the saints reject them, and the reaction of God to the reaction of the Beast and the Harlot.
Originally posted by DISRAELI
If you choose, you may identify with the persecuting Beast and Harlot, take their side against God, and call them "we".
Originally posted by DISRAELI
So the Beast is the political power, and the Harlot is some kind of religious
power (NOT necessarily one that is visible today).
Originally posted by DISRAELI
I choose to identify with the saints and join with them in defying your hostility.
Originally posted by DISRAELI
As far as I am concerned, your band of persecutors is not "we". You are only "they".
Originally posted by BO XIAN
ISAIAH 14:26 MAKES CLEAR that the WHOLE EARTH is involved in the END TIMES festivities.
That whole chapter has interesting details of the prophetic aspects of the END TIMES that Revelation is also all about.
originally posted by: the2ofusr1
a reply to: windword
You are saying that the Gospel of John is not a eye witness account ? .....You might have to dig deep and far not realize that John was a contemporary of Jesus and the rest of the 12 ...good luck with that ..
Originally posted by Joecroft
How and in what way are you linking the 2 mysteries together…?
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
From what I gather, the only times the word "mystery" is used in the entire bible is outlined HERE. If you take a look at the results of the word "mystery" it is used only in Paul's epistles, Revelation, and Daniel, and as we know Revelation mirrors Daniel in many aspects.
I don't think it is a coincidence that Paul is the only author other than Daniel/Revelation that uses the word "mystery" to describe his teachings.
There is one other reference to a mystery in Mark 4:11 and the context of that passage is that Jesus talks in parables to hide information from certain people, so a mystery is something that is meant to hide information from people. Paul's doctrine, that of a sacrificial Jesus, is a mystery that hides truth from people in my opinion. His doctrine, the church/whore, is the mystery on her forehead.
Colossians 1:27
To them God has chosen to make known among the Gentiles the glorious riches of this mystery, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory
From Allogenes
"Since your instruction has become complete, and you have known the Good that is within you, hear concerning the Triple-Powered One those things that you will guard in great silence and great mystery, because they are not spoken to anyone except those who
are worthy, those who are able to hear: nor is it fitting to speak to an uninstructed generation concerning the Universal One that is higher than perfect.
The Second apocalypse of James
'My God and my father, who saved me from this dead hope, who made me alive through a mystery of what he wills,
The Gospel of Philip
If one goes down into the water and comes up without having received anything, and says "I am a Christian," he has borrowed the name at interest. But if he receives the Holy Spirit, he has the name as a gift. He who has received a gift does not have to give it back,
but of him who has borrowed it at interest, payment is demanded. This is the way it happens to one when he experiences a mystery.
originally posted by: Joecroft
And if this response of yours above was your answer to it, then it only gives an example of God doing something remotely similar in the past…it doesn’t answer the question as to why…?
I wasn’t including the Saints in that statement
Yes, but I believe it’s referring to past Saints and Martyrs for Jesus, not some future Saints…In the past most Nations had Kings but that’s not true of today…
And more to the point, we haven’t even established what the Harlot is yet lol so how can you possibly say I’m identifying with it and taking its side etc…?
So again, how can you possible state that I’m identifying with something that might not even be here yet, and when you don’t even know what it is yourself…?
You clearly haven't thought any of this through…
What hostility…? lol where have I been hostile…?
My band of persecutors…???
originally posted by: the2ofusr1
a reply to: windword
You are saying that the Gospel of John is not a eye witness account ? .....You might have to dig deep and far not realize that John was a contemporary of Jesus and the rest of the 12 ...good luck with that ..
The schism's came quickly and well before John wrote his Gospel
Paul and in the book of Acts you see divisions entering the early Church
Originally posted by DISRAELI
You were including everybody in that statement as long as you referred to the people involved as "we".
If the saints are not included, then none of them can regard those mentioned in that verse as "we". In that case the word "we" is invalid, as far as the saints are concerned.
Originally posted by DISRAELI
You identify with it by the act of calling it "we". That is what the word "we" means, grammatically speaking; "I am part of this group I am describing". If you did not identify with them, you could stick with "they", which is the word found in the text.
Originally posted by DISRAELI
I repeat, you identify with them by the act of calling them "we".
I don't identify with them, so I am happy to continue using "they".
Originally posted by DISRAELI
The Beast and the Harlot are hostile, and you identify with them by calling them "we".
The Beast and the Harlot are persecutors, and you self-identify with them by calling them "we".
Originally posted by DISRAELI
So do you want to be part of that group or not?
Try thinking about the other 3 beasts of Daniel that is on earth at the end times and that they may be the kingdoms that give it to the little horn beast kingdom . Its the little horn kingdom that gets destroyed and the other 3 are allowed to carry on for a short time .
If Revelation 17:17 where it says “their Kingdom” who’s Kingdom is it referring too…?
originally posted by: Joecroft
Can you please move away from this whole “we” thing, it’s not getting us anywhere…
So let me ask you a simple question, just to help clarify things here…
If Revelation 17:17 where it says “their Kingdom” who’s Kingdom is it referring too…?
nd you’re not understanding what I meant by “we”, although I have tried to explain it several times…
f your concluding that from just the word “we” without trying to understand my perspective, then you’re just not thinking straight…
I clearly reject the Beast and his agenda…So which group are you asking me to be a part off…?