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originally posted by: introvert
It's only revisionist history according to those that are uneducated or ignorant on the topic.
originally posted by: introvert
Helmuth Wohlthat made it very clear to the British that Hitler did not want to go to war with them, even after years of military buildup leading to WWII by the British for the sole purpose of war with Germany.
originally posted by: introvert
Poland, being very anti-German, and still is today, played a role in all of that.
As we all know, the British government under Chamberlain gave Poland the guarantee that England would come to its aid if Poland should be attacked. This was on March 31st, 1939. Its purpose was to incite Poland to escalate its endeavors for war against Germany. It happened as planned: England declared war on Germany on September 3rd, 1939,
Prime Minister Ewa Kopacz also expressed displeasure with the ambassador. "The role of an ambassador accredited in a country should be to build to build harmony and friendly relations between countries," Kopacz said.
It is childishly naive and also unfair to suggest to a nation in a position like Poland, to compromise its relations with such a strong neighbour as Germany and to expose the world to the catastrophe of war, for no other reason than to pander to the wishes of Chamberlain's domestic policies. It would be even more naive to assume that the Polish government did not understand the true purpose of this manoeuver and its consequences.
"Germany produced butter as well as 'cannons', and much more butter and much fewer cannons than was generally assumed
The overall state of the German war economy ... was not that of a nation geared towards total war, but rather that of a national economy mobilized at first only for small and locally restricted wars and which only later succumbed to the pressure of military necessity after it had become an incontrovertible fact. For instance, in the fall of 1939 the German preparations for provision with steel, oil and other important raw materials were anything but adequate for an intense engagement with the Great Powers.
originally posted by: introvert
a reply to: machineintelligence
You have to look in to the history of that period to find that it was, in fact, Poland and the British that pushed Germany to invade in 1939. Germany had taken many steps to be diplomatic, but they Poles were not willing to sit at a table and converse with the Germans.
There's a lot more to history that what we are told.
Some significant violations (or avoidances) of the provisions of the Treaty were:
In 1919, the dissolution of the General Staff appeared to happen; however, the core of the General Staff was reestablished and hidden in the Truppenamt
In March 1935, under the government of Adolf Hitler, Germany violated the Treaty of Versailles by introducing compulsory military conscription in Germany and rebuilding the armed forces.
In March 1936, Germany violated the treaty by reoccupying the demilitarized zone in the Rhineland.
In March 1938, Germany violated the treaty by annexing Austria in the Anschluss