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originally posted by: StalkerSolent
I was under the impression that they regarded them as lacking in evidence of existence, not disproven.
Wait, wait wait wait. You don't think that history can arrive at truth? Obviously historians aren't omniscient, but you're saying "history just can't come to some conclusions." Then what's the point?
Glad to know you're the arbiter of genuine academia
Why? Isn't the historian's job to arrive at truth? Shouldn't the historian follow the evidence wherever it leads?
Why do you need to show that *all* relevant scientific observations are false to entertain miracles?
Miracles can't really exist *without* science, because a miracle is something that shouldn't happen according to scientific laws. Remove the scientific laws, and breaking them suddenly is no biggie.
originally posted by: windword
Not true. There not one single Roman historian of the time period that mentions Jesus of Nazareth.
originally posted by: windword
You tell me.
Galation1:11
Now I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel I preached is not of human origin. 12 For I did not receive it or learn it from any human source; instead I received it by a revelation of Jesus Christ.
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15 But when the one who set me apart from birth and called me by his grace was pleased 16 to reveal his Son in me so that I could preach him among the Gentiles, I did not go to ask advice from any human being, 17 nor did I go up to Jerusalem to see those who were apostles before me, but right away I departed to Arabia, and then returned to Damascus.
The gospel that Paul preached was NOT of HUMAN ORIGIN and he did NOT receive from any human being or any "apostles" that were before him.
Everything that Paul preached and taught came from the voice of an ethereal being, playing in his head, according to him!
originally posted by: peter vlar
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There's not a single contemporary source and all that is offered as response are rationalizations, what ifs and hypotheticals. Not any actual hard evidence though.
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In his Annals, Tacitus tells of a fire that swept through Rome in the 60s, for which some were blaming Nero himself...
Consequently, to get rid of the report, Nero fastened the guilt and inflicted the most exquisite tortures on a class hated for their abominations, called Christians by the populace. Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus, and a most mischievous superstition, thus checked for the moment, again broke out not only in Judaea, the first source of the evil, but even in Rome, where all things hideous and shameful from every part of the world find their centre and become popular.
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Jesus ben Ananias ("the son of Ananias") [rendered as the "son of Ananus" in the Whiston translation[1]] was a plebeian and a husbandman, who, four years before the First Jewish-Roman War began in 66 AD, went around Jerusalem prophesying the city's destruction. The Jewish leaders of Jerusalem turned him over to the Romans, who tortured him. The procurator Albinus took him to be a madman and released him. He continued his prophecy for more than seven years until he was killed by a stone from a catapult during the Roman siege of Jerusalem during the war. His name is rendered ישוע בן חנניה (Yeshua ben Hananiah) in modern Hebrew histories.
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originally posted by: [post=19270734]
We are not discussing YEC, or evolution... Stop trying to derail the thread.
The name Yeshu Ben Pantera came from the later slander that the Romans, and orthodox Jews were using to claim that Mary was raped by a Roman soldier called Pantera. Ben means "son of". That fact, that they were trying to slander Jesus' parentage is in fact proof that he did exist, but it is not proof of his parentage. Such slander by pagan Romans and orthodox Jews were attempts to deny Jesus' divinity.
One of you also claim that there was a "Jesus Ananias" and he could also be Christ. That isn't true either.
Jesus ben Ananias ("the son of Ananias") [rendered as the "son of Ananus" in the Whiston translation[1]] was a plebeian and a husbandman, who, four years before the First Jewish-Roman War began in 66 AD, went around Jerusalem prophesying the city's destruction. The Jewish leaders of Jerusalem turned him over to the Romans, who tortured him. The procurator Albinus took him to be a madman and released him. He continued his prophecy for more than seven years until he was killed by a stone from a catapult during the Roman siege of Jerusalem during the war. His name is rendered ישוע בן חנניה (Yeshua ben Hananiah) in modern Hebrew histories.
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en.wikipedia.org...
Ananias died from a ballista, and not being crucified. Not to mention that he didn't have a multitude of followers and Christianity was founded because of him either.
That was written after his crucifixion. It is not proof Jesus did not exist... During the time that Jesus was alive he also said "his kingdom is not of this Earth". Does that mean he didn't exist?....No....
The point is to look at the reliability of the source and weigh the story, find cross references if possible etc. Then give a probability. For the relevant passage, the source is known to be extremely unreliable (the book is full of magic and obvious falsehoods, reads like mythology), there is no other mention of such dramatic events recorded by anyone else and the probability for it is also exceedingly low in any genuine historical context (it's a fairy tale).
Not so much arbitrating as explaining a concept that is usually taken for granted (under heading "common sense"). Also explaining why "all Ph.D's" are not apologists and why no genuine scholars accept magic. Why I would need to do this, I don't know, it should be common sense (yet we are talking about religion I suppose).
That somewhat being the whole point (that you seem to be missing)...Not to start with a belief and look to verify it, or accepting magical anecdotes.
You don't really. You could display a miracle. Say move Mt. Everest from it's present location via faith. Walk on water under controlled conditions, heal sick and lame via faith etc. Repeat the miracles in the bible, they would surely overturn our entire understanding of science and would have the same effect. Look forward to that one.
Lol. Yeah no problem at all, excuse for a moment...(ha ha ha ha ha ha ha), sorry, all good now.
You are making some very good points on ahistoricists behalf. We should recruit you. Not only happy with the notion that apologists should masquerade as academics/historians (as you say, don't all Ph.D's?), you want to include the magic! lol
Don't discount magic...it exists...there is no distinction between probable fact and obvious fantasy...people can walk on water...it says so in a book...anecdotes galore...
You're just throwing out stuff because magic occurs. Why? Because you've never seen it? I've never seen a solar eclipse, and it sounds like a mythical apocalyptic event, so should I throw it out? No? Because it can be measured and predicted? OK. So would I have been right to reject it back when all we had to go on was witness testimony?
Are you saying that we should believe that there was a solar eclipse the day Jesus supposedly died? Or, are you saying something supernatural might have happened to cause the Sun to go black? Are you asking us to take the tale as reality based on biblical testamony?
In other words, we shouldn't discount things just because they sound weird to us.
I'm not sure that we should, if we are talking about different passages from the same source. If we find a different source that lacks passages about magic, it may be more believable and possibly more accurate unless there are other reasons to doubt its accuracy such as bias of the author for example.
originally posted by: StalkerSolent
Why should we reject the magical anecdotes and accept the other ones?
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
I'm not sure that we should, if we are talking about different passages from the same source. If we find a different source that lacks passages about magic, it may be more believable and possibly more accurate unless there are other reasons to doubt its accuracy such as bias of the author for example.
originally posted by: StalkerSolent
Why should we reject the magical anecdotes and accept the other ones?
Yeah, okay but, we KNOW that there couldn't have been a solar eclipse the day that Jesus supposedly died. So, if we're supposed to take the story as truth, then it has to magic, right?
I don't think is narrow minded to reject magic. It makes far more sense to see it as fable. Occam's razor!
It feels like you're asking historians NOT to discount MAGIC as historical testimonial evidence.
I'm not referring to Jesus' death at all
Sure. But Occam's razor says that the simplest explanation is often the best one. Sometimes it is simpler to say "Gee, maybe those people witnessed magic" rather than "gee, maybe those people were all hallucination the same thing."
It doesn't matter. The Bible says it happened.
Just because something sounds weird, doesn't mean it is untrue. Just because something sounds magical, doesn't mean it is real. Just because something doesn't match up with our preferred worldview, doesn't mean we shouldn't have an open mind.
Is that how you think historians should view the textual testimony of Jesus' miracles in the Bible when considering whether or not Jesus Christ was a real person or a myth? They should say 'Could be, who knows?" when they read about such events?
whether or not he committed miracles