It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
originally posted by: windword
a reply to: StalkerSolent
That's a BIG IF! We're just going to have to wait and see what they're able to lift from this death mask. They say they found part of the book of Mark. But, in my experience, Christians tend to see what they want. For all we know this fragment says something like, "Love God with all your heart", which is a very generic saying. Many of the sayings that Jesus is credited with were spoken by someone else, and/or are found in earlier scripture.
Like I said, we'll have to wait and see.
40 years after an event is a LONG time to remember exact quotes of what someone said. I don't remember things I said a week ago, let alone 40 years ago. Doubly so if the author isn't a primary source.
So tell me some quotes, from memory of course, of influential people you met in the 70's.
Because the author used common Jewish names? That sounds like a stretch.
originally posted by: StalkerSolent
You and me both! But oddly enough, I don't remember claiming the Bible is full of exact quotes. In fact, that's (by and large) unlikely, especially in the New Testament, since scholars believe that Jesus spoke Aramaic and the Gospels were written in Greek.
While I'm flattered that it seems to be otherwise, I am, in fact, not old enough to have been meeting influential people in the 1970s. A (journalist) friend of mine is writing a book that (if I recall the time period correctly) is set in the late '70s/early '80s. It's unlikely that most of the quotes in that book will be exact, but journalists and historians won't criticize it for that fact, since he's talking to people who were alive at the time.
As I understand it (this is something I heard about, I haven't read the original material) it wasn't so much because the author merely used common Jewish names as much as it was that the author used Jewish names that were common to the specific place and time mentioned, and in such a way that indicated knowledge of the culture. For instance, the people in the Bible with "nicknames" like Judas Iscariot apparently had them because their names were so common as to necessitate a distinguishing feature. The frequency of names used changes based on time and culture, and I think it has the potential to rule out a forgery by someone with no knowledge of the culture, as the above poster suggested.
I had heard about this a while back, and I did some Googling today to track down the original research. I believe it's Richard Baukham's work that I was thinking of (you can read more about it here.)
I don't think this is slam dunk just yet, and hope more research is done into this sort of thing. It's an exciting idea with a lot of potential.
With the claims being made about Jesus, it certainly would help to have those.
They would only not criticize it if the people he is talking to give him factual information. Any historian who reads his work would have to double check his sources to make sure the information he is recording is accurate before passing it on into the historical record.
Just because the authors of the gospels may have lived in the area, still doesn't mean they were real. Stephen King lives up in Massachusetts and bases many of his books in MA, but that doesn't mean that the monsters he writes about exist.
I COULD believe in divine inspiration, but that is unproven and has yet to happen again in the 2000 years since the bible was written. Why has god stopped divinely inspiring people? Especially in this day and age of supposed indecency?
originally posted by: Cogito, Ergo Sum
Got anything?
Still, the only WRITINGS of Alexander the Great were written a couple of hundreds + years AFTER his death.
B.C & A.D. Stop that C.E crap.
40 years after an event is a LONG time to remember exact quotes of what someone said. I don't remember things I said a week ago, let alone 40 years ago. Doubly so if the author isn't a primary source.
originally posted by: StalkerSolent
The gospels are obviously not contemporary, it's unlikely they were written even by people who really understood the cultures and times where these stories were set.
Really? If the recent findings of a Gospel that dates back to 70 AD are true (that's ~40 years after Christ is supposed to have died) that's almost certainly untrue.
Furthermore, it's my understanding that recent work has shown that the usage of the names used in the Gospels matches almost exactly the the names used by Jews of the time and era, based on records we have found. This strongly suggests that the authors either were present at the time or did their homework.
originally posted by: ElectricUniverse
originally posted by: Cogito, Ergo Sum
Got anything?
Do you forget yet again that Jesus was despised by authorities at the time?... And you think they would allow "statues" to be built of him?... Not to mention that it was not what Jesus himself was teaching people about.
BTW, we wouldn't find coins with the image and name of Jesus like we have of Alexander the Great... Still, the only WRITINGS of Alexander the Great were written a couple of hundreds + years AFTER his death. If writings about some of the most important historical figures is found only AFTER their deaths, even hundreds of years later, how come you want to use the lack of earlier references to Jesus as evidence he didn't exist? That is a fallacious argument.
Do we have anything?... Yes we do, but those like you just don't want to accept such evidence. Heck, you have gone so far as claiming "Tacitus didn't write anything about Jesus" when the evidence provided shows quite the contrary.
And it is quite ironic that you ask if "we have got anything" when the evidence you are providing comes from a group of people that most scholars don't even take seriously, "Mythicists" such as "Raphael Lataster".
originally posted by: soaringhawk
a reply to: peter vlar
B.C & A.D. Stop that C.E crap.
originally posted by: ElectricUniverse
a reply to: windword
A statue is not a text about Alexander the Great. Not to mention the fact that the Greeks, and the Romans as pagans made statues of gods and goddesses like Zeus, Apollo, Athena, etc. Are you claiming that a statue is better proof of the existence of historical figures than writings by historians?... Then I guess minotaurs must have existed. I guess according to you the Greek and Roman pagan gods and goddesses did exist...
In the New Testament, the noun Tartarus does not occur but tartaroo (ταρταρόω, "throw to Tartarus"), a shortened form of the classical Greek verb kata-tartaroo ("throw down to Tartarus"), does appear in 2 Peter 2:4. Liddell Scott provides other sources for the shortened form of this verb, including Acusilaus (5th century BC), Joannes Laurentius Lydus (4th century AD) and the Scholiast on Aeschylus' Eumenides, who cites Pindar relating how the earth tried to tartaro "cast down" Apollo after he overcame the Python.[10] In classical texts, the longer form kata-tartaroo is often related to the throwing of the Titans down to Tartarus.[11]
The ESV is one of several English versions that gives the Greek reading Tartarus as a footnote:
For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but cast them into hell [1] and committed them to chains [2] of gloomy darkness to be kept until the judgment;"
Footnotes [1] 2:4 Greek Tartarus wiki
originally posted by: Cogito, Ergo Sum
I didn't compare jesus to such historical figures, you did. I merely pointed out the absurdity of doing so.
originally posted by: Cogito, Ergo Sum
Which version of jesus are you backing (there are plenty to choose)? Can you explain which one and why?