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But as I said in a post before, the Supreme Court laid it out long ago that the rights extended by the Constitution extend to Americans overseas, but not foreigners overseas.
I'm really not sure how the process of trying to gain access to warrants issued by the FISC would work. I'm fairly certain that it would be a pain in the rear, but if you want to find out, take a shot. See what you can find out about the process. There's nothing that says they have to show you anything, but I guess it cant hurt to give it a shot.
Originally posted by Bob Sholtz
reply to post by flyswatter
But as I said in a post before, the Supreme Court laid it out long ago that the rights extended by the Constitution extend to Americans overseas, but not foreigners overseas.
yeah, i remember reading about that distinction in the constitution, oh wait...i'd love to see a link for that.
I'm really not sure how the process of trying to gain access to warrants issued by the FISC would work. I'm fairly certain that it would be a pain in the rear, but if you want to find out, take a shot. See what you can find out about the process. There's nothing that says they have to show you anything, but I guess it cant hurt to give it a shot.
you claimed that warrants are being served correctly, if at all, so i asked you to provide proof of this claim.
We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness.
Originally posted by Bob Sholtz
reply to post by flyswatter
the supreme court does not have the authority to say what rights apply to whom. it is not an issue that revolves around interpretation, as "inalienable rights" has an easily understandable meaning.
"where rights secured by the constitution are involved, there can be no rule making or legislation which would abrogate them." miranda v. arizona
We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness.
this is not my opinion, and requires no "interpretation". "we hold these truths to be self-evident, that ALL men..."
it does not matter what rules or legislation is passed, inalienable rights remain.
I am not at all above admitting that I am wrong, but to my knowledge there is not even a single lonely ruling in the history of this country that proves that Constitutional rights apply to foreigners abroad.
Originally posted by Bob Sholtz
reply to post by flyswatter
I am not at all above admitting that I am wrong, but to my knowledge there is not even a single lonely ruling in the history of this country that proves that Constitutional rights apply to foreigners abroad.
there does not need to be a ruling to state that "self-evident" truths are true. you can have your opinion and disagree, of course.
notice that after the declaration of independence was written, what did they do? they fought a war.
if you're arguing the world is a better place because of wars and spy programs, you'd be quite wrong. sometimes war is necessary, but usually not.
Due process is the legal requirement that the state must respect all of the legal rights that are owed to a person. Due process balances the power of law of the land and protects the individual person from it. When a government harms a person without following the exact course of the law, this constitutes a due-process violation, which offends against the rule of law.
Clauses still in force The clauses of the 1297 Magna Carta still on statute are: Clause 1, the freedom of the English Church Clause 9 (clause 13 in the 1215 charter), the "ancient liberties" of the City of London Clause 29 (clause 39 in the 1215 charter), a right to due process
Originally posted by flyswatter
Originally posted by Bob Sholtz
reply to post by flyswatter
I am not at all above admitting that I am wrong, but to my knowledge there is not even a single lonely ruling in the history of this country that proves that Constitutional rights apply to foreigners abroad.
there does not need to be a ruling to state that "self-evident" truths are true. you can have your opinion and disagree, of course.
notice that after the declaration of independence was written, what did they do? they fought a war.
if you're arguing the world is a better place because of wars and spy programs, you'd be quite wrong. sometimes war is necessary, but usually not.
But given their own Constitution, they shouldnt have been able to fight a war. If we were to extend the rights to those individuals that oppose us in the war, the war simply wouldnt happen. Not legally, anyway.
We'll just have to agree to disagree. I'd still love to see any time that Constitutional rights have ever been extended to foreigners abroad though
As far as the world being a better place because of war, it really depends on how you look at it. War is never good, but the end result of some wars have absolutely had positive effects on the world in general. Thats a whole other can of worms though.
In the United States, Congress, which makes the rules for the military, has the power under the constitution to "declare war". However neither the U.S. Constitution nor the law stipulate what format a declaration of war must take. War declarations have the force of law and are intended to be executed by the President as "commander in chief" of the armed forces. The last time Congress passed joint resolutions saying that a "state of war" existed was on 5 June 1942, when the U.S. declared war on Bulgaria, Hungary, and Rumania.[32] Since then, the U.S. has used the term "authorization to use military force", as in the case against Iraq in 2003. Sometimes decisions for military engagements were made by US presidents, without formal approval by Congress, based on UN Security Council resolutions that do not expressly declare the UN or its members to be at war. Part of the justification for the United States invasion of Panama was to capture Manuel Noriega (as a prisoner of war)[33] because he was declared a criminal rather than a belligerent.[citation needed] In response to the attacks on 11 September 2001, the United States Congress passed the joint resolution Authorization for Use of Military Force Against Terrorists on 14 September 2001, which authorized the US President to fight the War on Terror.[3
Originally posted by Privateinquotations
Originally posted by flyswatter
Originally posted by Bob Sholtz
reply to post by flyswatter
I am not at all above admitting that I am wrong, but to my knowledge there is not even a single lonely ruling in the history of this country that proves that Constitutional rights apply to foreigners abroad.
there does not need to be a ruling to state that "self-evident" truths are true. you can have your opinion and disagree, of course.
notice that after the declaration of independence was written, what did they do? they fought a war.
if you're arguing the world is a better place because of wars and spy programs, you'd be quite wrong. sometimes war is necessary, but usually not.
But given their own Constitution, they shouldnt have been able to fight a war. If we were to extend the rights to those individuals that oppose us in the war, the war simply wouldnt happen. Not legally, anyway.
We'll just have to agree to disagree. I'd still love to see any time that Constitutional rights have ever been extended to foreigners abroad though
As far as the world being a better place because of war, it really depends on how you look at it. War is never good, but the end result of some wars have absolutely had positive effects on the world in general. Thats a whole other can of worms though.
Under a declaration of war the individuals are considered enemy combatants and their rights are forfeit.
In the United States, Congress, which makes the rules for the military, has the power under the constitution to "declare war". However neither the U.S. Constitution nor the law stipulate what format a declaration of war must take. War declarations have the force of law and are intended to be executed by the President as "commander in chief" of the armed forces. The last time Congress passed joint resolutions saying that a "state of war" existed was on 5 June 1942, when the U.S. declared war on Bulgaria, Hungary, and Rumania.[32] Since then, the U.S. has used the term "authorization to use military force", as in the case against Iraq in 2003. Sometimes decisions for military engagements were made by US presidents, without formal approval by Congress, based on UN Security Council resolutions that do not expressly declare the UN or its members to be at war. Part of the justification for the United States invasion of Panama was to capture Manuel Noriega (as a prisoner of war)[33] because he was declared a criminal rather than a belligerent.[citation needed] In response to the attacks on 11 September 2001, the United States Congress passed the joint resolution Authorization for Use of Military Force Against Terrorists on 14 September 2001, which authorized the US President to fight the War on Terror.[3
We'll just have to agree to disagree. I'd still love to see any time that Constitutional rights have ever been extended to foreigners abroad though
Article 12. No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his privacy, family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks.
Article 17. (1) Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others. (2) No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property.
Everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set forth in this Declaration, without distinction of any kind, such as race, colour, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status. Furthermore, no distinction shall be made on the basis of the political, jurisdictional or international status of the country or territory to which a person belongs, whether it be independent, trust, non-self-governing or under any other limitation of sovereignty.
Article 3. Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.
Originally posted by Bob Sholtz
reply to post by flyswatter
We'll just have to agree to disagree. I'd still love to see any time that Constitutional rights have ever been extended to foreigners abroad though
i've just discovered this nice tidbit. "the universal declaration of human rights". it is an internationally binding agreement signed by the U.S. et al, and clearly states a person's rights to life, liberty, property, and privacy. it is the standard that is used to enunciate human rights violations, and applies to all countries and people whether they signed or not. these are all inalienable rights.
Article 12. No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his privacy, family, home or correspondence, nor to attacks upon his honour and reputation. Everyone has the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks.
Article 17. (1) Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others. (2) No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property.
Everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set forth in this Declaration, without distinction of any kind, such as race, colour, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status. Furthermore, no distinction shall be made on the basis of the political, jurisdictional or international status of the country or territory to which a person belongs, whether it be independent, trust, non-self-governing or under any other limitation of sovereignty.
Article 3. Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.
www.un.org...
you sir, are now required to eat your hat. i shall be waiting for a youtube video.edit on 2-7-2013 by Bob Sholtz because: (no reason given)
Using the Universal Declaration of Human Rights as a guide, governments are responsible for creating national laws to protect universal human rights. Citizens can then use their own judicial and legal systems to prosecute individuals or groups that have violated human rights.
constitutional law is quite clear. your whole argument rests on whether or not it has ever been enforced as such, but that is inconsequential. breaking constitutional law, even if that restriction hasn't been enforced (mostly because a case like this has never come up before), is still a violation of constitutional law. the 4th amendment is not a restriction on citizens, it's a restriction on the government. the government is bound by the 4th amendment, there are no exception clauses for foreigners.
And you have been here since 2004
however, what the NSA is doing violates constitutional rights. that is illegal. the whole "it's not a violation until a court decides it is" isn't correct. that may be your opinion, but that isn't how things work.
Wrong Bob, it is exactly how things work.
The Supreme Court disagrees
not where rights secured by the constitution are involved. the supreme court doesn't have the power our authority to infringe on a constitutional right. no one does without due process of a specific individual.
The Fourth Amendment (Amendment IV) to the United States Constitution is the part of the Bill of Rights which guards against unreasonable searches and seizures, along with requiring any warrant to be judicially sanctioned and supported by probable cause.
So a legal warrant is obtained and your argument is what?