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Originally posted by truejew
Again, the thief died before baptism for the remission of sins.
Calling people "idiots" is not very Christian.
Originally posted by adjensen
Then why did John the Baptist, as well as the Apostles (and maybe Jesus) baptize people before the crucifixion?
Originally posted by truejew
That is why those baptized only by John's baptism, unto repentance, had to be rebaptized for the remission of sins.
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
That is why those baptized only by John's baptism, unto repentance, had to be rebaptized for the remission of sins.
When did that ever happen? Is there an instance in the Bible of someone being re-baptized? Where, for example, is documented the re-baptism of Peter?
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
That is why those baptized only by John's baptism, unto repentance, had to be rebaptized for the remission of sins.
When did that ever happen? Is there an instance in the Bible of someone being re-baptized? Where, for example, is documented the re-baptism of Peter?
Acts 19:1-6 (KJV)
And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus: and finding certain disciples, 2He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost. 3And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism. 4Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. 5When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
Why are you asking a loaded question?
Originally posted by adjensen
But, again, where is there indication that the Apostles were re-baptized?
Originally posted by adjensen
And what was the baptism that they were practicing before the resurrection?
Originally posted by wildtimes
reply to post by NOTurTypical
Why are you asking a loaded question?
Sorry, but, how is this a loaded question?
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
But, again, where is there indication that the Apostles were re-baptized?
We are not told in Scripture, however, I think it is safe to say that they followed what they preached.
Some years back when I first began my research, I was told by a Oneness minister I was trying to be Catholic. One idiot said I was a secret Jesuit infiltrator. (Source)
Can a trinitarian who was never baptized in the name of Jesus Christ baptize a person in the name of Jesus Christ? Some claim it is not the spiritual condition of the baptizer, it is the faith of the baptismal candidate here. One idiot had the audacity to say that even a drunk could baptise in Jesus Christ name and the person's baptism would be valid. The same idiot said the baptism of a homosexual pastor was valid if he did it in the name of Jesus Christ. (Source)
Originally posted by adjensen
But they didn't preach re-baptism, and there is no indication that they practiced it, either.
Originally posted by adjensen
While we can agree that Christian and Jewish baptism are different things, you seem to be basing that on your previously noted flawed "salvation by works", where if the words aren't exactly right, the magic doesn't happen.
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
But they didn't preach re-baptism, and there is no indication that they practiced it, either.
They, all of the apostles, preached remission of sins in His name from the day of Pentecost and beyond.
Now for your justification of calling others idiots...
I do not agree with Pastor Reckart on everything. He is a good man, not a perfect man.
Originally posted by adjensen
Except that there is no evidence for them re-baptizing anyone, or for they themselves having been re-baptized. Since that's the cornerstone of your faith, what you claim is the "true Christianity", don't you think it would be a lot clearer?
Originally posted by truejew
Originally posted by adjensen
Except that there is no evidence for them re-baptizing anyone, or for they themselves having been re-baptized. Since that's the cornerstone of your faith, what you claim is the "true Christianity", don't you think it would be a lot clearer?
I posted evidence of re-baptism.
You are very obsessed with Pastor Reckart.
Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by adjensen
So you think that Paul was alone in preaching remission of sins in the name of Christ?
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by adjensen
So you think that Paul was alone in preaching remission of sins in the name of Christ?
No, I think Paul was alone in believing that some people needed to be re-baptized. There is no indication that anyone else thought that, did that, or had it done to them.
It is therefore a holy and wholesome thought to pray for the dead, that they may be loosed from sins.
Thus he made atonement for the dead that they might be freed from this sin.
There is no doubt that both Catholic and Eastern Orthodox Christians (e.g., Greek and Russian Orthodox) have much in common regarding the whole matter of purgatory and prayers for the departed. For example, both see a foundation for such prayers in Holy Scripture. In 2 Maccabees 12:42-46, for example, the Jewish hero Judas Maccabeus ordered sacrifices to be offered in the Temple for the souls of his soldiers killed in battle, that their sins might be forgiven: "It is therefore a holy and wholesome thought to pray for the dead, that they may be loosed from their sins" (verse 46). Obviously, if they could be "loosed" from their sins after their death by the prayers of the living, they must be in some kind of post-mortem state in which cleansing from sin is possible. This seems to have been a common Jewish belief in the century before Christ. [Note: The common Protestant contention that the Catholic Church only added the two books of Maccabees to the Scriptures in 1546, at the Council of Trent, to counter Martin Luther's claim that prayers for the departed were not scriptural, is demonstrably false. The Maccabean corpus was accepted at Rome as canonical Scripture as early as 496 A.D., in the Decree of Pope Gelasius. The books were also listed as canonical Scripture by the ecumenical Council of Florence (1439-1443) long before the Reformation. The decree on the scriptural canon at the Council of Trent only clarified the uncertainties about the Old Testament books because a few other books in the so-called Apocrypha were still in dispute.