She survived Hitler and wants to warn America.

The Nazis legalized abortion?
Did anybody tell the Reichszentrale zur Bekämpfung der Homosexualität und der Abtreibung?
(Doctors performing abortions in Nazi-germany where facing the death penalty, the Reichszentrale had to be informed about miscarriages)
Also the Waffengesetz from 1938 made it EASIER to get guns, not harder.

Sorry, but I have to doubt our "Survivor" (Who as a white, rightwing woman was in the segment of the population with the best chances to "survive" hitler)

Originally posted by rational1

Originally posted by LadyGreenEyes

Originally posted by rational1
I don't think that's a good argument. The Nazis took over education, yes. What this meant then was firing teachers who spoke out against the Nazi Party, eventually only allowing Nazi teachers to teach, creating special Hitler youth programs, et cetera... this is again absolutely nothing like anything that is happening in American education. You are drawing parallels that don't exist. Not making the huge logical leaps you have to make to draw these parallels is not "worshiping the state," it's just being rational.

Also, if you take the attitude that everyone who disagrees with you is an idiot and a moron, you're putting yourself at a disadvantage, because sometimes other people's opinions can be valuable.

Oh, isn't it?

one

two

three

Speak against something those in control want, and you are demonized, and can lose your job. Same thing happens with teachers that express their Christian views in other ways as well.

Then we have the fact that the current administration created Homeland Security documents calling any and all that would disagree with him "potential terrorists".

But, you can't see any parallels. Unreal......

What? You're using examples of how different local school systems acted against their teachers when the teachers posted hate speech online to draw parallels to a state where teachers were forced to conform to a hateful ideology lest they be fired? Are you kidding me? You are trying very hard to see parallels that don't exist here.

As for those expressing "Christian views," they shouldn't be expressing them publicly in schools as employees of the schools. Separation of church and state.

You stated that nothing like that was happening in public schools, and I showed you examples where it is happening. Also, I would call forcing teachers to agree with something like homosexuality a "hateful ideology".

As for Christian viewpoints, people do not lose their right to free practice of religion, or to freedom of speech, simply because they work in some public office. That's a failed interpretation.

Flagging for future use. Thank you OP.

Originally posted by EllaMarina
reply to post by LadyGreenEyes

 

I was under the impression that he also happens to be one of the most unpopular presidents of all time. He's being accused of ruining the US, and he's far from bringing the world into a golden age. Besides, he's not even from the Middle East, which is one of the supposedly prophesied requirements.

Under that impression from the people that (supposedly) re-elected him? From those in other countries that talk about how "wonderful" he is? There are people in this country that don't like him, and they are treated like criminals, racists, and so forth. The Antichrist won't bring the world into a golden age, either, though he might promise such. Besides, we don't really know where he's from. As he even said, "The only people who don't want to disclose the truth, are people with something to hide." He's worked awfully hard to hide everything about his past, even to making two online birth certificates that many experts claim are clear frauds. If he's got nothing to hide, why fight showing one in court? Why keep sealed all the school and work records?

Im sure our "freedom" is already reaching its end as the next generation gets formed.

Originally posted by lpowell0627

Originally posted by ArtooDetoo

Nazism hasnt become a synonyme for evil because Hitler promoted gender equality, free healthcare or secular PUBLIC education, but rather because of the attrocities committed against non Germans.

To say that USA is moving towards Nazi Germany because of secular public education is just idiocracy.

edit on 21-12-2012 by ArtooDetoo because: (no reason given)

edit on 21-12-2012 by ArtooDetoo because: (no reason given)

You forgot about healthcare takeover, the persecution of religion that is currently taking hold, and the discussions regarding banning the purchase of certain types of weapons.

Hitler was able to commit such atrocities in part because by the time his true agenda was revealed, the people were too dependent on him and the government. They were brainwashed to believe his way was the right way and that the world would be better off if everyone followed his model

Hold it there now. Germany has the world's oldest universal health care system, dating back to 1883, it didnt start with Hitler as a scheme to controle people.

Second of all, no gun restriction law was passed by Hitler, gun registration program was already in effect in Germany it was enacted in 1928, five years before Hitler’s ascendancy - and it wasnt about outlawing guns. In fact, Hitler loosened gun restrictions in 1938. The law expanded the exemptions to permits as itlowered the age from 20 to 18, expanded permit time ranges from 1 to 3 years, and it applied the laws only to handguns, not long guns.

So, to state that nazis rounded every weapon in order to gain power is cheap propaganda and ignorance, nothing but a myth.

is this another pro-Israel move,theres a big political underline......(look what the germans did to us)..........really?.

sounds like washington state

reply to post by ArtooDetoo


Read this.
Gun Politics In Germany

History clearly records the Regulations Against Jews' Possession of Weapons being put into place after the 1938 Weapons Act. Hitler not only tightened restrictions on firearm possession for the 'loyal' citizens, but had his MI, Wilhelm Frick, deprive Jews of the right to own or possess firearms and bladed weapons.

You should be 100% on your factual history before you tear down others. =)

Originally posted by Kryyptyk
reply to post by ArtooDetoo

 

Read this.
Gun Politics In Germany

History clearly records the Regulations Against Jews' Possession of Weapons being put into place after the 1938 Weapons Act. Hitler not only tightened restrictions on firearm possession for the 'loyal' citizens, but had his MI, Wilhelm Frick, deprive Jews of the right to own or possess firearms and bladed weapons.

You should be 100% on your factual history before you tear down others. =)

Jews yes, everybody else: no (If you look at your link you see more exemptions and fewer restrictions+ one new restriction: Jews)
Things Jews were forbidden before 1938
Employment by the government (1933)
Sex/Marriage wit Aryans (1935)
Joining the Wehrmacht (1935)
German citizenship (!) (1936)
Professional Jobs (1936)
Government contracts to jewish businesses(1938)

All these things were possible to enact without disarming them first, yet we are told again and again that the disarming was vital.
Note that from 1936 on jews in germany were no longer citizens. So the waffengesetz from 1938 effectively banned selling arms to a certain group of foreigners. You know, like mexican drug lords need american straw purchasers to enjoy their 2nd amendment freedom.

Edit to add: Oh look! It has already happened in the US:
www.foxnews.com...

reply to post by narwahl

Jews yes, everybody else: no

read again.
those who were not Jews were simply denied permit renewal, period.
need another link ?
usa-the-republic.com...

the result of the Weimer Republic laws was the establishment of a gun REGISTRY and that's why a registry is simply UnConstitutional in the USA.
Hitler used the established registry to enable his goal of mass disarmament.

Originally posted by Honor93
reply to post by narwahl

 

Jews yes, everybody else: no

read again.
those who were not Jews were simply denied permit renewal, period.
need another link ?
usa-the-republic.com...

the result of the Weimer Republic laws was the establishment of a gun REGISTRY and that's why a registry is simply UnConstitutional in the USA.
Hitler used the established registry to enable his goal of mass disarmament.

edit on 26-12-2012 by Honor93 because: typo

Read again again.
1938:
Minimum age lowered from 20 to 18

reply to post by narwahl

you can repeat this nonsense til infinity, it doesn't change the truth.

the gun registry was used to confiscate and prevent future ownership of any firearms by whomever the govt deemed a threat.
that is a fact.

yes, the Hitler youth (soldier prep) became a mandate, what's your point?

all the changes you mentioned were only extended to those selected or chosen by the regime ...it was not extended to everyone.

no, they aren't and weren't.
undocumented aliens in the US have far more privilege, exercise of natural rights and property ownership than the Jews had removed while in Germany.

reply to post by narwahl

yes, they did ...

www.angelfire.com...
The Nazis believed that a woman's body beloned to the State, and the State would decide what to do with it. The Nazis did not allow abortion for healthy "Aryan" German women, but demanded and forced abortion upon women deemed "unAryan" (i.e. Jews, Gypsies, Slavs, etc.) and "Aryan" German women who were thought to be feeble-minded, or have hereditary diseases. (Abortion in the New Europe, p.114)

or this ...

same source
The first court to rule that "viability" and the "woman's health" were determinate factors in abortion was the Nazi Heredity Court of 1934, when it ruled that "... (Aryan) pregnancy may be terminated, with the concent of the woman concerned, uless the foetus is already capable of independent life, or unless the termination of the pregnancy entails a serious danger to either the life or health of the woman herself." (The Racial State, 1991, p.141).

now, you can pretend that it didn't happen.
or you can infer that it has been misrepresented but eugenics by any other name is still genocide.

Originally posted by Honor93
reply to post by narwahl

 

you can repeat this nonsense til infinity, it doesn't change the truth.

the gun registry was used to confiscate and prevent future ownership of any firearms by whomever the govt deemed a threat.
that is a fact.

yes, the Hitler youth (soldier prep) became a mandate, what's your point?

all the changes you mentioned were only extended to those selected or chosen by the regime ...it was not extended to everyone.

no, they aren't and weren't.
undocumented aliens in the US have far more privilege, exercise of natural rights and property ownership than the Jews had removed while in Germany.

and you can continue spewing till infinity and it won't change the facts.
Before Hitler ever came to power fact:Restrictions imposed by the treaty of Versailles

Restrictions imposed by the treaty of Versailles In 1919 and 1920, to stabilize the country and in part to comply with the Treaty of Versailles, the German Weimar government passed very strict gun ownership restrictions. Article 169 of the Treaty of Versailles stated, "Within two months from the coming into force of the present Treaty, German arms, munitions, and war material, including anti-aircraft material, existing in Germany in excess of the quantities allowed, must be surrendered to the Governments of the Principal Allied and Associated Powers to be destroyed or rendered useless."[1] In 1919, the German government passed the Regulations on Weapons Ownership, which declared that "all firearms, as well as all kinds of firearms ammunition, are to be surrendered immediately."[2] Under the regulations, anyone found in possession of a firearm or ammunition was subject to five years' imprisonment and a fine of 100,000 marks. On August 7, 1920, the German government enacted a second gun-regulation law called the Law on the Disarmament of the People. It put into effect the provisions of the Versailles Treaty in regard to the limit on military-type weapons. In 1928, the German government enacted the Law on Firearms and Ammunition. This law relaxed gun restrictions and put into effect a strict firearm licensing scheme. Under this scheme, Germans could possess firearms, but they were required to have separate permits to do the following: own or sell firearms, carry firearms (including handguns), manufacture firearms, and professionally deal in firearms and ammunition. This law explicitly revoked the 1919 Regulations on Weapons Ownership, which had banned all firearms possession. Stephen Halbrook writes about the German gun restriction laws in the 1919-1928 period, "Within a decade, Germany had gone from a brutal firearms seizure policy which, in times of unrest, entailed selective yet immediate execution for mere possession of a firearm, to a modern, comprehensive gun control law."[3]

and Ill quote further down

The 1938 German Weapons Act The 1938 German Weapons Act, the precursor of the current weapons law, superseded the 1928 law. As under the 1928 law, citizens were required to have a permit to carry a firearm and a separate permit to acquire a firearm. Furthermore, the law restricted ownership of firearms to "...persons whose trustworthiness is not in question and who can show a need for a (gun) permit." Under the new law: Gun restriction laws applied only to handguns, not to long guns or ammunition. Writes Prof. Bernard Harcourt of the University of Chicago, "The 1938 revisions completely deregulated the acquisition and transfer of rifles and shotguns, as well as ammunition."[4] The groups of people who were exempt from the acquisition permit requirement expanded. Holders of annual hunting permits, government workers, and NSDAP party members were no longer subject to gun ownership restrictions. Prior to the 1938 law, only officials of the central government, the states, and employees of the German Reichsbahn Railways were exempted.[5] The age at which persons could own guns was lowered from 20 to 18.[5] The firearms carry permit was valid for three years instead of one year.[5] Jews were forbidden from the manufacturing or ownership of firearms and ammunition.[6] Under both the 1928 and 1938 acts, gun manufacturers and dealers were required to maintain records with information about who purchased guns and the guns' serial numbers. These records were to be delivered to a police authority for inspection at the end of each year. On November 11, 1938, the Minister of the Interior, Wilhelm Frick, passed Regulations Against Jews' Possession of Weapons. This regulation effectively deprived all Jews of the right to possess firearms or other weapons.[7]

Your truth will never be FACT

reply to post by Mister1k

how does that apply to Hitler's use of the established registry ?
i didn't say Hitler established it, he used it to further the Nazi agenda.

facts are facts and the progression of abuse is both obvious and evident.

i see you skipped over the 1928 Weapons Act, why ?

Your truth will never be FACT

really ???

then why did you quote it ?

As under the 1928 law, citizens were required to have a permit to carry a firearm and a separate permit to acquire a firearm

what your link glosses over is the 'restrictive' part of the 1928 laws that enabled future confiscations as enacted under Hitler.

usa-the-republic.com...
As a result of the 1928 Law, all firearms and firearms owners were registered. To take firearms from anyone they distrusted, the Nazis simply did not renew permits. Under the law, their privately created law, the Nazis could now easily confiscate all firearms and ammunition from any, or all, selected groups. The gun law of 1928 had served the Nazis well. It made almost all law abiding firearms owners known to the authorities. The 1928 law on firearms and ammunition helped the Nazis to destroy democracy in Germany, by disarming the law abiding majority, whom they feared.

By the end of 1931, a rising tide of violence, mainly between Nazi and Communist street fighters, moved the authorities to tighten restrictions. Under new regulations, the police could order everyone's firearms and ammunition ... even items not normally used as weapons ... to be put into police custody,
"If the maintenance of public security and order require it."

sad for you that you've not studied more than one side of the issue.

Originally posted by Honor93
reply to post by narwahl

 

yes, they did ...

www.angelfire.com...
The Nazis believed that a woman's body beloned to the State, and the State would decide what to do with it. The Nazis did not allow abortion for healthy "Aryan" German women, but demanded and forced abortion upon women deemed "unAryan" (i.e. Jews, Gypsies, Slavs, etc.) and "Aryan" German women who were thought to be feeble-minded, or have hereditary diseases. (Abortion in the New Europe, p.114)

or this ...

same source
The first court to rule that "viability" and the "woman's health" were determinate factors in abortion was the Nazi Heredity Court of 1934, when it ruled that "... (Aryan) pregnancy may be terminated, with the concent of the woman concerned, uless the foetus is already capable of independent life, or unless the termination of the pregnancy entails a serious danger to either the life or health of the woman herself." (The Racial State, 1991, p.141).

now, you can pretend that it didn't happen.
or you can infer that it has been misrepresented but eugenics by any other name is still genocide.

edit on 26-12-2012 by Honor93 because: add txt

Abortion was legalized in 1920. in 1933 the first thing the nazis did was reinstate the punishments (and later increase them) (Of course only for the portions of the population they wanted to "protect" - Maybe you didn't know this: The Nazis were racists)

reply to post by narwahl

Abortion was legalized in 1920. in 1933 the first thing the nazis did was reinstate the punishments (and later increase them) (Of course only for the portions of the population they wanted to "protect" - Maybe you didn't know this: The Nazis were racists)

now you're being silly and foolish all at once.

first you insist performing an abortion under Hitler warranted a death sentence

Doctors performing abortions in Nazi-germany where facing the death penalty

now, you say it's been legal since 1920 ... so, which is it ?

i already sourced the facts for you ...

The Nazis believed that a woman's body beloned to the State, and the State would decide what to do with it. The Nazis did not allow abortion for healthy "Aryan" German women, but demanded and forced abortion upon women deemed "unAryan" (i.e. Jews, Gypsies, Slavs, etc.) and "Aryan" German women who were thought to be feeble-minded, or have hereditary diseases. (Abortion in the New Europe, p.114)

your choice to ignore it is your own.

i know my history, it would seem you're still learning ... have at it.
and from a previous post ... eugenics by any other name is still genocide.

Originally posted by Honor93
reply to post by narwahl

 

Abortion was legalized in 1920. in 1933 the first thing the nazis did was reinstate the punishments (and later increase them) (Of course only for the portions of the population they wanted to "protect" - Maybe you didn't know this: The Nazis were racists)

now you're being silly and foolish all at once.

first you insist performing an abortion under Hitler warranted a death sentence

Doctors performing abortions in Nazi-germany where facing the death penalty

now, you say it's been legal since 1920 ... so, which is it ?

i already sourced the facts for you ...

The Nazis believed that a woman's body beloned to the State, and the State would decide what to do with it. The Nazis did not allow abortion for healthy "Aryan" German women, but demanded and forced abortion upon women deemed "unAryan" (i.e. Jews, Gypsies, Slavs, etc.) and "Aryan" German women who were thought to be feeble-minded, or have hereditary diseases. (Abortion in the New Europe, p.114)

your choice to ignore it is your own.

i know my history, it would seem you're still learning ... have at it.
and from a previous post ... eugenics by any other name is still genocide.

1920-1933

reply to post by narwahl

Hitler joined and then led the Nationalist Socialist Workers' Party from the moment it was founded. he and the Nazi party were influential in government looooong before he became dictator.

www.history.com...
Hitler joined the party the year it was founded (1919) and became its leader in 1921.
In 1933, he became chancellor of Germany and his Nazi government soon assumed dictatorial powers.

surely this isn't news to you ?

ETA - some would say -1923 or 1926 marked the beginning year of the Nazi power grab ... just from this event alone ...

history.hanover.edu...
Mein Kampf (1926)

In 1923 Adolf Hitler was arrested for attempting to overthrow the government in Munich. His National Socialist German Workers' Party (the Nazi party) was still relatively small, and he used his trial to attract national attention. In due course he was convicted and sentenced to prison; while there he wrote Mein Kampf (My Struggle), outlining his political ideas. Mein Kampf was not taken seriously at first, but it includes many of the ideas the Nazis put in practice in the 1930s and 1940s

for anyone to think his influence, policies, beliefs, ideals or desires were absent in Germany, until 1933, would represent one of the greatest brain-washings of all time.

that's like suggesting Kissinger has been out of the loop since he retired ...
yeah, sure, but some will believe it anyway
ps ... i am not the poster who suggested the Nazi's legalized abortion ... i know better ... however, they did little to stop it, either. it didn't end, it didn't become "performed under penalty of death", it became selective, nothing more.

if anything, the Nazi's did do more to prevent abortions desired by Aryans, however they also demanded abortions in general ... and, it was by choice of the state, not the parents.