It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
I take the entire war figuratively.
I take that figuatively.....
Then it should be obvious that this war is also "not any more".
we don't use swords or horseman anymore....
So why did Ezekiel not describe anything that comes close to what we have today?
although the rifle and armored units take the place of those in modern warfare.
This explanation for Rosh was something that was proposed in the 1700's and resulted in an interpretation that is only perpetuated in a cult expecting a pretribulation rapture, that was invented back in the early 1800's.
And "whole" army. Do you know how many "armies" the Russians have (assuming, as I beleive, that Rosh/Gog of Magog is Russia)?. TEN! Ten seperate armies in 4 seperate Districts.
Just more speculation based on an old interpretation perpetuated by a cult.
A large force made of many countries will attack Israel before or during the last days. Note......depending on what scholar/pastor/seminary/interpretation you look at the Ez 38 war is NOT the battle of Armegaddon. It is seperate. In fact their might even be another Arab-Israeli war BEFORE the EZ 38 war.
Was Revelation 12 fulfilled yet? No. Why? We haven't seen a "day of the Lord" yet.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by ntech
Was Revelation 12 fulfilled yet? No. Why? We haven't seen a "day of the Lord" yet.
There is no mention of a "day of the Lord" in Revelation.
The Epistle of Barnabas is not in the Bible.
Isaiah 13 is a retelling of Revelation. Or vice versa.
or one generation (70 years according to Psalm 90:10) after Israel's recreation and the blooming of the fig tree.
Maybe he thinks Ezekiel would be a more credible prophet if he had called them "tanks" and "planes" when such words didn't exist. He doesn't seem to understand that writers like Ezekiel, Daniel and John were describing what they saw in the terms they understood at the time.
Funny how he only quotes a minor detail of Ezekiel 38 and leaves out all that relevant stuff about the hostile nations surrounding Israel. This is happening today....This is the battle of Gog and Magog.
Parables are not IQ tests. No one is "not supposed" to understand.
There are some people in the world for various reasons that are simply not supposed to understand.
Now here is how the fig tree parable works. Using the let the bible solve the bible principle.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by ntech
There are some people in the world for various reasons that are simply not supposed to understand.
Now here is how the fig tree parable works. Using the let the bible solve the bible principle.
Parables are not IQ tests. No one is "not supposed" to understand.
People have a difficult time understanding complex concepts so Jesus taught them in parables, so they could understand, not to prevent all but the most intelligent from understanding.
So are making it out as if it was a puzzle that you have to go to other books to find the clues for. That is where you get the worse interpretations because you make up stuff the authors were never trying to say.
The withered fig tree story was not a parable but something that actually happened.
As for Luke's telling of a parable, the sensible explanation is they were already given the "second" chance, right then, after what happened from Nebuchadnezzar. They were taken into captivity, then brought back and nurtured with their nice temple and all. But they still did not "get" it, even with the Lord right in front of them.
. . . at the end of days. Have I got it?
Originally posted by ntech
reply to post by jmdewey60
Riddle me this then Batman. Read the prophesies of Genesis 48 and 49 and then look closely at verse 49-1.
1 And Jacob called unto his sons, and said, Gather yourselves together, that I may tell you that which shall befall you in the last days.
Now ask this question. How do events that happened in the BC era or the first century AD could have possibly fulfilled the prophesies in question? The term last days has as one of it's meanings "When the Israelites have become a multitude of nations."
Daniel 8
17 So he came near where I stood: and when he came, I was afraid, and fell upon my face: but he said unto me, Understand, O son of man: for at the time of the end shall be the vision.
Daniel 11
6 And in the end of years they shall join themselves together; for the king's daughter of the south shall come to the king of the north to make an agreement: but she shall not retain the power of the arm; neither shall he stand, nor his arm: but she shall be given up, and they that brought her, and he that begat her, and he that strengthened her in these times.
40 And at the time of the end shall the king of the south push at him: and the king of the north shall come against him like a whirlwind, with chariots, and with horsemen, and with many ships; and he shall enter into the countries, and shall overflow and pass over.
Daniel 12
4 But thou, O Daniel, shut up the words, and seal the book, even to the time of the end: many shall run to and fro, and knowledge shall be increased.
Sorry but you don't understand that there is a time requirement on those prophesies. Which couldn't have been satisfied 2000 years ago.
edit on 21-10-2012 by ntech because: (no reason given)edit on 21-10-2012 by ntech because: (no reason given)
That is the KJV, but it just means "in the future".
. . . that I may tell you that which shall befall you in the last days.
Jesus came after Jacob.
How do events that happened in the BC era or the first century AD could have possibly fulfilled the prophesies in question?
Huh?
The term last days has as one of it's meanings "When the Israelites have become a multitude of nations."
It is generally undestood that everything described in Daniel already happened.
Sorry but you don't understand that there is a time requirement on those prophesies. Which couldn't have been satisfied 2000 years ago.
No jokes involved.
jmdewey is a bad joke.
I join in with the mainstream view held by Christian biblical scholars who interpret Revelation metaphorically. I also hold the view that those who attempt to interpret Revelation literally are in the domain of the cults.
He tries to refute the book of Revelations . . .
A metaphorical millennium.
. . . and seems to think that the millennial reign of Christ is right now, . . .
That is where the term "metaphorical" comes in.
. . . despite the major mathematical flaw that I've pointed out to him multiple times considering he thinks it began 2000 years ago.
A modern so-called Jewish state illegally occupying Palestine is not the biblical Israel just because it calls themselves that. It is the Zionist regime. So technically I am not "anti-Israel" but anti-fake-Israel.
Personally I think it's because he is anti-semite or anti-Israel,
It is either literal or metaphorical, but your theory merges the two by picking and choosing which aspects of the story is or isn't.
. . . so of course he's going to try to refute Gog Magog as well.
Part of the cult brainwashing is to make the members think they are not in a cult.
He pretty much calls everyone who doesn't agree with him a cult member.
The same one who has been around since Eden.
I can't say I blame him though, as the Deceiver has already set up shop in Jerusalem.