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Originally posted by calstorm
Back when I was still a Christian, I asked those in the position of authority in my church about this. It left them flabbergasted and without response. One person called me a liar and refused to even read the passage. However it had me very troubled.
Even though I no longer believe, I still would like to hear what Christians think of this this.
This is not an attack, just an attempt to deal with something that has been bugging me for several years.
Exodus 32: 9-14
9 And the Lord said unto Moses, I have seen this people, and, behold, it is a stiffnecked people: 10 Now therefore let me alone, that my wrath may wax hot against them, and that I may consume them: and I will make of thee a great nation. 11 And Moses besought the Lord his God, and said, Lord, why doth thy wrath wax hot against thy people, which thou hast brought forth out of the land of Egypt with great power, and with a mighty hand? 12 Wherefore should the Egyptians speak, and say, For mischief did he bring them out, to slay them in the mountains, and to consume them from the face of the earth? Turn from thy fierce wrath, and repent of this evil against thy people. 13 Remember Abraham, Isaac, and Israel, thy servants, to whom thou swarest by thine own self, and saidst unto them, I will multiply your seed as the stars of heaven, and all this land that I have spoken of will I give unto your seed, and they shall inherit it for ever. 14 And the Lord repented of the evil which he thought to do unto his people.
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
reply to post by NOTurTypical
From the link it says that god didn't change his mind, only Moses convinced him to change his mind. That doesn't make any sense because if Moses convinced him to change his mind, then that means he changed his mind. There's no way around it using that logic.
It also says that god did it to teach Moses a lesson, which is bunch of bologna because god instilled in him righteousness, which means there is no reason for god to teach Moses because he already knew the lesson.
Linking to a clearly biased site is not helping your case out either.
Also, the verse clearly states that god 'repented'. If god did not repent then why does the bible clearly use the word?edit on 9-8-2012 by 3NL1GHT3N3D1 because: (no reason given)edit on 9-8-2012 by 3NL1GHT3N3D1 because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by AfterInfinity
So it isn't "God" that's the problem, it's the writers. And since the writers are clearly imperfect, we cannot rely on them to impart a flawless understanding of a flawed topic.
There's really no point to trying to understand, then. There will always be mistakes. Good to know.
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
reply to post by WarminIndy
I have already applied what the bible means to how I see the world, I do not deny it has truth in it. What I deny is that it is the infallible word of god, because it is not and should not be treated as such.
The bible is the fallible word of man, and the many inconsistencies and contradictions only prove that it is not the word of god. It is a fabrication inspired by natural things and those natural things are twisted and metaphorized.
The fact that Christians see their god as all-knowing, yet believe he has the ability to repent is a major flaw in logic, and I am not against pointing it out.
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
reply to post by WarminIndy
I view your god as you view him: omniscient. Do you agree with that? If so, that leaves no room for repentance because he knew the outcome long before Moses came into the picture.
Repentance =/= omniscient, it goes against logic.
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
reply to post by NOTurTypical
From the link it says that god didn't change his mind, only Moses convinced him to change his mind. That doesn't make any sense because if Moses convinced him to change his mind, then that means he changed his mind. There's no way around it using that logic.
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
reply to post by WarminIndy
Why do you keep comparing your god to my father? You are comparing something that is perfect to an imperfect human? That doesn't make any sense and the two are not comparable when looking through your world-view.
You are clearly missing the point, something which is omniscient cannot repent because he already made his decision not to kill the Egyptians long before the situation came up, meaning he never truly repented, which calls into question why the bible states god repented.
Omniscient :adjective 1. having complete or unlimited knowledge, awareness, or understanding; perceiving all things.
an·thro·po·mor·phism (nthr-p-môrfzm)
n.
Attribution of human motivation, characteristics, or behavior to inanimate objects, animals, or natural phenomena.
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
reply to post by NOTurTypical
an·thro·po·mor·phism (nthr-p-môrfzm)
n.
Attribution of human motivation, characteristics, or behavior to inanimate objects, animals, or natural phenomena.
So you're saying that god is an inanimate object? Or an animal? What about natural phenomena? I'd have to go with the last one myself.
Since that particular verse is an anthropomorphication, and is the fallible interpretation of what god is, what makes you think the bible is infallible? You are using doublethink, saying one thing and believing it yet believing the opposite at the same time. That shows a lack of critical thinking.
reply to post by WarminIndy I view your god as you view him: omniscient. Do you agree with that? If so, that leaves no room for repentance because he knew the outcome long before Moses came into the picture. Repentance =/= omniscient, it goes against logic.
reply to post by WarminIndy You are clearly missing the point, something which is omniscient cannot repent because he already made his decision
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
reply to post by WarminIndy
You still refuse to understand what I am saying. You cannot repent if you know you are going to 'repent' beforehand, that is not repenting because god knew what decision would be made infinitely before it was made. It is not repenting when you never truly meant to do what you said you'd do before 'repenting'. That implies that god NEVER planned on killing the Egyptians, which means he never repented to begin with.
I'm not sure I can make it any clearer than that. I even repeated what I said several times over to make it as clear as possible.
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
reply to post by WarminIndy
Key word 'your' god, not mine. I am only stating what every christian believes their god is. It all hinges on whether YOU believe he is omniscient, not me. I am only putting what I say within your perspective because I am talking to you and trying to make a point, and that point is if YOU believe he is omniscient, then he cannot repent.
This discussion about your god and what you believe he is or isn't, it's not about mine.
You cannot repent if you know you are going to 'repent' beforehand, that is not repenting because god knew what decision would be made infinitely before it was made.
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
reply to post by WarminIndy
The definition of omniscient is knowing everything, from beginning to end. If your god knew that he wasn't going to kill the Egyptians beforehand, then how can you possibly believe what he did was repentance? It honestly shouldn't be this hard for you to grasp.
adjective 1. having complete or unlimited knowledge, awareness, or understanding; perceiving all things.