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Originally posted by sk0rpi0n
Christians understand that the term "son of God" in Adams case does not mean a "son" in the literal sense...
edit on 6-8-2012 by sk0rpi0n because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by MagnumOpus
While I am selling it? Do a simple history check... the virgin birth has been primary Christian doctrine for 2000 years now. And James and Jude were not older brothers for one, for two they were half brothers.edit on 7-8-2012 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by MagnumOpus
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by MagnumOpus
While I am selling it? Do a simple history check... the virgin birth has been primary Christian doctrine for 2000 years now. And James and Jude were not older brothers for one, for two they were half brothers.edit on 7-8-2012 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)
Prove they were half brothers and not older.
NO hand waving, show the precise citations from the Biblical records.
He was already in existence in the time of David.
Yet, for some reason... David is described in the bible as "father of Jesus".
Something you are assuming based on speculation.
Though Jesus was created by God directly in Marys womb... he is presented as being a "descendant" of David.
Because of Mary. Her and Joseph were both of the house of David.
Because of Mary. Her and Joseph were both of the house of David.
I don't think I would call her "the mother of God", that to me would imply she pre-existed God. I think her womb was used to bring the Son of God into the world.
He was already in existence in the time of David.
Something you are assuming based on speculation.
After eight days had passed, it was time to circumcise the child; and he was called Jesus, the name given by the angel before he was conceived in the womb.
Luke 2:21
"Conceived" is an interpretation but the literal word is "seized", as in being arrested and held prisoner. So it is describing Jesus being named before he entered into Mary's womb. Also he was not created there, but the person, Jesus, already existed and then went to that place.
I am sorry to say that the whole front page of this topic right now is full of nonsense which can mean many things, but also means one thing.
These type of things are so basic, that I know can be understood, so I won't even say it.
You mean as a soul?
That is not something insignificant
It is something fundamental to today's religion of any sort.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical
Because of Mary. Her and Joseph were both of the house of David.
There is no way to know that seeing that only the genealogy of Joseph is listed.edit on 7-8-2012 by jmdewey60 because: add Bible quote: "For the creation eagerly waits for the revelation of the sons of God." Romans 8:19
Originally posted by jmdewey60
There is no way to know that seeing that only the genealogy of Joseph is listed.edit on 7-8-2012 by jmdewey60 because: add Bible quote: "For the creation eagerly waits for the revelation of the sons of God." Romans 8:19
Luke’s text says that Jesus was “a son, as was supposed, of Joseph, of Eli” (in the Greek: υιος ως ενομιζετο ιωσηφ του ηλι). The qualification has traditionally been understood as acknowledgment of the virgin birth, but some instead see a parenthetical expression: “a son (as was supposed of Joseph) of Eli.” In this interpretation, Jesus is called a son of Eli because Eli was his maternal grandfather, his nearest male ancestor.
A variation on this idea is to explain “Joseph son of Eli” as meaning a son-in-law, perhaps even an adoptive heir to Eli through his only daughter Mary. An example of the Old Testament use of such an expression is Jair, who is called “Jair son of Manasseh” but was actually son of Manasseh’s granddaughter. In any case, the argument goes, it is natural for the evangelist, acknowledging the unique case of the virgin birth, to give the maternal genealogy of Jesus, while expressing it a bit awkwardly in the traditional patrilinear style.
The reason for the divergence in genealogies, is that Matthew is said to record the actual legal genealogy of Jesus through Joseph according to Jewish custom. In Luke we apparently have the actual biological genealogy of Jesus through Mary which Luke naturally gives as he is writing for the Gentiles.
The reason Mary is not implicitly mentioned by name is because the ancient Hebrews never permitted the name of a woman to enter the genealogical tables, but inserted her husband as the son of him who was, in reality, but his father-in-law.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by sk0rpi0n
Jesus is also fully human. He could not have died otherwise.
No, you are over analyzing. The Christian position is that He was fully Man and fully Divine. Not either or as you are reading into my statements.
Originally posted by sk0rpi0n
reply to post by NOTurTypical
No, you are over analyzing. The Christian position is that He was fully Man and fully Divine. Not either or as you are reading into my statements.
Lets go by the bible.
When did Jesus ever say that he was "fully man and fully divine"?
Does the bible ever speak of "man" being divine?