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Originally posted by SneakyB
If Irving changed his mind about their existence it does not mean that they were used for killing.
He simply may have found info that 1 or more buildings were used to delouse prisoners.
How were they killed, and where? On a small scale, unwanted Jews were put to death by gassing in two small units at Auschwitz, the White House and the Red House, which is now in Poland. It was a death camp as well as a slave-labour camp.
Originally posted by Biliverdin
Particularly, when he wrote about Hess, he began to stick his nose in places that they didn't want outsiders looking, and he was not only black balled, but there was a rather clear attempt to smear his reputation. To compound this, and perhaps because of this, he did fall in with the wrong crowd, and was perhaps a little too easily led to the Right. I sort of suspect that it is possible that this was all part of the plan to discredit him.
Originally posted by Biliverdin
From the start he was concerned that an Allied offensive would target the Ruhr, and the Ruhr was essential to his war effort, as well as the economy in general, at war or peace.
Originally posted by NichirasuKenshin
Originally posted by SneakyB
If Irving changed his mind about their existence it does not mean that they were used for killing.
He simply may have found info that 1 or more buildings were used to delouse prisoners.
Then you should read Irving's answer that the other poster provided:
How were they killed, and where? On a small scale, unwanted Jews were put to death by gassing in two small units at Auschwitz, the White House and the Red House, which is now in Poland. It was a death camp as well as a slave-labour camp.
So Irving makes quite clear which of your possibilities he now advocates.
Originally posted by SneakyB
"On a small scale" was part of his quote... and that does not come anywhere near what we're been led to believe for the past 40 years.
Originally posted by NichirasuKenshin
My boss, who was an internationally renouned military historian (no names) once drunkenly proposed the Irving-Hess theory that you brought up. I think it is a distinct (maybe even the most plausible) possibility. But this only reenforces the stupidness of what Irving went on to do - as you say, hanging out with the wrong crowd. I think he did way more than that. I think his ambitions with "that crowd" point to more than just hanging out with them. I think he honestly believed that he was going to bring down the establishment. Either way, it was an irrepsonsible move, which is human and forgiveable. But it was also unscientific to the point of seriously damaging his credibility - probably up to the very end of his life. As to where he stands today, I don't know. He almost seems positively mainstream to me.
Originally posted by NichirasuKenshin
Originally posted by SneakyB
"On a small scale" was part of his quote... and that does not come anywhere near what we're been led to believe for the past 40 years.
Depends on what "everything" means to you. Most of the knowledge that I have about the Holocaust and the Second World War comes from the most traditional of sources. There was never much in there to suggest that gas chambers were the sine qua non of the Holocaust. From the traditional sources that I studied, a picture emerged in which the elements which did not include any gas chambers (at least in the Zyklon B sense) at all, such as the Einsatzkommando and the Reinhardt Camps, were the pivotal structures of Nazi mass murder.
I think that much of the prominence of the gas chambers is to be explained by the peculiarities of victimhood and memory (mix in a dose of good old political piggybacking on tragedies). Picking up scholarly accounts of the Holocaust does certainly not suggest that a majority of any ethnic subgroup was put to death in traditional gas chambers such as those portrayed in Hollywood's rendition of the Holocaust. But cleary, (and not surprisingly) the gas chambers have a deep psychological meaning for any victim, and of course it can also be abused and milked, which undeniably has been done by some of the most extreme zionists. It's justthat I believe that it's more a function of the psychological implications of victimhood, and certainly not something inherent in scholarly writings on the Holocaust.edit on 20-7-2012 by NichirasuKenshin because: grammaredit on 20-7-2012 by NichirasuKenshin because: grammar
explained by the peculiarities of victimhood and memory (mix in a dose of good old political piggybacking on tragedies)
Originally posted by SneakyB
And why is it okay to rake Germany over the coals for the past 65 years when so much of the "truth" might be based on "peculiarities of victimhood and memory"?
Originally posted by Studenofhistory
reply to post by Biliverdin
I agree completely with the 'follow the money' line of reasoning. The problem is when you do that, you get labelled anti-semitic.
Originally posted by SneakyB
And why is it okay to rake Germany over the coals for the past 65 years when so much of the "truth" might be based on "peculiarities of victimhood and memory"?
Originally posted by nightbringr
Maybe you can show some examples of how Germany is still the whipping boy?