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Originally posted by Radiobuzz
reply to post by seabag
You know, I was about to alert the mods, call them into this thread to read your 'contributions' but I decided against it. I
Originally posted by dayve
Ha...ha.....ha..... Marriage is a thing for straight folk, they need to come up with their own thing and quit cryin about it.... Its like atheist complaining they want to use the cross as their new symbol.....stupid
You know, I was about to alert the mods, call them into this thread to read your 'contributions' but I decided against it. I will however say that it's pretty evident to me that you are in fact trolling and trying to hijack this thread. You are not interested in the least to have an actual discussion. Either that or you lack the intelligence to engage in one.
You also keep mentioning your constitution so let me remind you of the 14th amendment in case you have skipped it
I wanted to reply to you but it's pretty hard in the sea of posts you have amassed during the short life of this thread.
.
Originally posted by seabag
reply to post by stanguilles7
Again, you said "Civil Unions' is a viable option for Gays.
It is not. This makes them illegal.
Clear?
10th Amendment!
The people voted!
Civil Unions aren't constitutionally protected!!
Clear??
My argument is that all government licencing of marriage should be banned.
Basically marriage is a religious issue and government should have no place presiding over it or regulating it.
Let people do what they want in their place of worship, and keep it outta government. Please.
The 14th Amendment says that all citizens must be given the same privileges as others.
Originally posted by mileysubet
Originally posted by dayve
Ha...ha.....ha..... Marriage is a thing for straight folk, they need to come up with their own thing and quit cryin about it.... Its like atheist complaining they want to use the cross as their new symbol.....stupid
Yep, in fact they did and if bothered to read the OP it is called a "civil union", it would give all the legal rights of a religious marriage to a same sex couple without the stigma of a religious marriage.
For most of Western history, marriage was a private contract between two families. Until the 16th-century, Christian churches accepted the validity of a marriage on the basis of a couple’s declarations. If two people claimed that they had exchanged marital vows—even without witnesses—the Catholic Church accepted that they were validly married.
State courts in the United States have routinely held that public cohabitation was sufficient evidence of a valid marriage.[1] Marriage license application records from government authorities are widely available starting from the mid-19th century. Some are available dating from the 17th century in colonial America.[2] But marriage licenses were not required until after the civil war.[1] Marriage licenses from their inception have sought to establish certain prohibitions on the institution of marriage. These prohibitions have changed throughout history. In the 1920s, they were used by 38 states to prohibit whites from marrying blacks, mulattos, Japanese, Chinese, Indians, Mongolians, Malays or Filipinos without a state approved license.[1] At least 32 nations have established significant prohibitions on same-sex marriage.[3]
Marriage licenses were introduced in the 14th century, to allow the usual notice period under banns to be waived, on payment of a fee and accompanied by a sworn declaration, that there was no canonical impediment to the marriage. Licenses were usually granted by an archbishop, bishop or archdeacon. There could be a number of reasons for a couple to obtain a license: they might wish to marry quickly (and avoid the three weeks' delay by the calling of banns); they might wish to marry in a parish away from their home parish; or, because a license required payment, they might choose to obtain one as a status symbol.
Originally posted by BiggerPicture
how did civil marriage become religious?
Hardwicke's Marriage Act 1753 affirmed this existing ecclesiastical law and built it into statutory law. From this date, a marriage was only legally valid, if it followed the calling of banns in church or the obtaining of a license—the only exceptions being Jewish and Quaker marriages, whose legality was also recognized. From the date of Lord Hardwicke's Marriage Act, up to 1837, the ceremony was required to be performed in a consecrated building.
Since July 1, 1837, civil marriages have been a legal alternative to church marriages, under the Marriage Act 1836, which provided the statutory basis for regulating and recording marriages.So, today, a couple has a choice between being married in the Anglican Church, after the calling of banns or obtaining a license or else, they can give "Notice of Marriage" to a civil registrar. In this latter case, the notice is publicly posted for 15 days, after which a civil marriage can take place. Marriages may take place in churches other than Anglican churches, but these are governed by civil marriage law and notice must be given to the civil registrar in the same way. The marriage may then take place without a registrar being present, if the church itself is registered for marriages and the minister or priest is an Authorised Person for marriages.
IF the US Constitution were being applied correctly, SCOTUS wouldn't need to hear such a case
but that hasn't happened in an awfully long time, why would it now ??
Originally posted by seabag
reply to post by MikeNice81
The 14th Amendment says that all citizens must be given the same privileges as others.
Has the Supreme Court ruled on same-sex marriage?
What was the outcome? Please share!
Prop 8 "therefore could not have been enacted to advance California's interests in childrearing or responsible procreation, for it had no effect on the rights of same-sex couples to raise children or on the procreative practices of other couples." Additionally it did not "have any effect on religious freedom or on parents' rights to control their children's education; it could not have been enacted to safeguard these liberties." Instead, all that Prop 8 "accomplished was to take away from same-sex couples the right to be granted marriage licenses and thus legally to use the designation of ‘marriage,’ which symbolizes state legitimization and societal recognition of their committed relationships."
Prop 8 "serves no purpose, and has no effect, other than to lessen the status and human dignity of gays and lesbians in California, and to officially reclassify their relationships and families as inferior to those of opposite-sex couples." The panel majority stated that the "Constitution simply does not allow for 'laws of this sort,' " quoting and citing Romer v. Evans, 517 U.S. 620, 633 (1996).
i don't believe for one minute that applying the Constitution correctly is lame, sorry to hear that you do.
That’s LAME!
The SCOTUS is part of the system! Most of the crap that goes before the SCOTUS is stuff that we ALL KNOW IS BS, like same-sex marriage.
It goes to the SCOTUS because it has already been ruled AGAINST in lower courts and the LOSERS didn’t like the ANSWER….kind of like this conversation
link
In determining the meaning of any Act of Congress, or of any ruling, regulation, or interpretation of the various administrative bureaus and agencies of the United States, the word “marriage” means only a legal union between one man and one woman as husband and wife, and the word “spouse” refers only to a person of the opposite sex who is a husband or a wife.
Ha...ha.....ha..... Marriage is a thing for straight folk.