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But it doesn't say that!
Bible Aloners, the Gospel says the first Christians assembled to worship God on the first day of the week to honor the day Jesus arose, Sunday.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by colbe
There is no way to know if this was not added to the text as late as the 11th century.
The Letter of BarnabasNow I bought a book back in October, Apostolic Fathers: Volume II. Epistle of Barnabas. Papias and Quadratus. Epistle to Diognetus. The Shepherd of Hermas (Loeb Classical Library No. 25N), by Bart D. Ehrman, because of certain people on the ATS forum posting about this letter and making all kinds of wild claims.
"We keep the eighth day [Sunday] with joyfulness, the day also on which Jesus rose again from the dead" (Letter of Barnabas 15:6–8 [A.D. 74]).
This is a new edition of this book which is updated with new information and translated from a better Greek text.
What you quoted supposedly from this letter is not in this version that I own.
What it does say is that we live in a metaphorical 7nth day where we are being made holy during this "resting" period.
The metaphorical 8th day is in the "next world".
Apparently you got this "information" from a propaganda web site that is basically lying.edit on 28-8-2013 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by colbe
But it doesn't say that!
Bible Aloners, the Gospel says the first Christians assembled to worship God on the first day of the week to honor the day Jesus arose, Sunday.
It never says in the New Testament that anyone celebrated Jesus resurrection.
He is the editor of the book, plus the one who wrote the introductions to the individual documents, and the translator and most likely the editor of the Greek Text.
Who is Bart Ehrman . . .
No, because they didn't, they just approved it later.
You accept the Roman Catholic's authority to compile the Bible.
Barnabas in not in the normal canon.
Jim, you deny that Barnabas said this, wrote his letter? You can't pick and choose because you personally disagree with Barnabas' words.
I said already that what you are quoting is not in that letter. That is according to the latest Loeb Library edition which is considered by scholars as the standard authoritative version.
"We keep the eighth day [Sunday] with joyfulness, the day also on which Jesus rose again from the dead" (Letter of Barnabas 15:6–8 [A.D. 74]).
Originally posted by rstrats
colbe,
re: "...the Gospel says the first Christians assembled to worship God on the first day of the week to honor the day Jesus arose, Sunday."
As jmdewey60 touched on, nowhere in scripture is anything said about anyone meeting on the first day of the week for the purpose of honoring the resurrection.
re: " The first Christians referred to Sunday as the Lord's Day."
Nowhere in Scripture do any of the first Christians refer to the first day of the week as the "Lord's Day".
re: "John is pretty special, he refers to the Lord's Day in Revelation."
But nowhere in Revelation does John ever identify the first day of the week as the Lord's Day.
. . . there is God's oral revelation (tradition) and some of it you accept.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by colbe
He is the editor of the book, plus the one who wrote the introductions to the individual documents, and the translator and most likely the editor of the Greek Text.
Who is Bart Ehrman . . .No, because they didn't, they just approved it later.
You accept the Roman Catholic's authority to compile the Bible.
I deal with the normal canonical New Testament because it is the standard Christian scripture whether I agree if some of it is authentic or not.Barnabas in not in the normal canon.
Jim, you deny that Barnabas said this, wrote his letter? You can't pick and choose because you personally disagree with Barnabas' words.edit on 28-8-2013 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by colbe
. . . there is God's oral revelation (tradition) and some of it you accept.
Salvation is by faith alone. That is in the New Testament (not in those exact words), but I do not agree with Luther's interpretation of what that means.edit on 28-8-2013 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)
The New Testament as it exists in the normal (protestant) version has been in existence before there was "official" recognition.
Name your fellas and the year.
I meant the Letter of Barnabas.
You don't make sense because Barnabas is spoken of over and over again in the Gospel.
Jim Dewey: He is the editor of the book, plus the one who wrote the introductions to the individual documents, and the translator and most likely the editor of the Greek
Who is Bart Ehrman . . .
. . . the "imputation" heresy . . .
"Faith Alone" is one the heresies Protestants will not let go of, from it comes other heresies such as OSAS,
The Gospel of John was not written in Aramaic, it was written in Greek. So the word used in the original was Logos, which also shows up in the Septuagint, which is the Greek version of the Old Testament, and what Jesus would have read, living in gentile territory all his life.
The source of your information is pertinent to the argument. You seem to be a cult member by the way you treat certain things that can only be a matter of opinion as if they were facts.
The evidence suggests otherwise. The promises were conditional. Jesus was the one who eventually met the criteria for receiving the gifts of the promise and through him they were dispersed throughout the world to those who believe in him.
It is the New Testament itself that contradicts that, not the work of a later church "perverting" beliefs about Jesus.
Your problem does not come from reading the Bible but listening to self-proclaimed Jews in the midst of your congregation who are working to subvert Christianity.
God means "FALSE" idols not images of the Trinty, of Our Lord, of the saints, of His mother. An image is a reminder of who we love like a photo of a loved one, see....?
I am the LORD thy God, who brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage. Thou shalt have no other gods before Me. Thou shalt not make unto thee a graven image, nor any manner of likeness, of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth; thou shalt not bow down unto them, nor serve them; for I the LORD thy God am a jealous God....
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by colbe
The New Testament as it exists in the normal (protestant) version has been in existence before there was "official" recognition.
Name your fellas and the year.
An example could be Athanasius who was using the same list of NT books back in 320 AD.I meant the Letter of Barnabas.
You don't make sense because Barnabas is spoken of over and over again in the Gospel.edit on 28-8-2013 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)
Jesus was a cultural Jew.
Christ was a Torah observant Jew. He was raised a Jew. His disciples were all Jews. Christ lived in Israel. His parents were Jews. He grew up in a Jewish culture.
In order to have ammunition to argue with the Jewish doctors of the Law.
He and His disciples read from the Torah and the Prophets . . .
How many animals did he sacrifice and how much money did he change in the temple?
He kept the Torah.