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Jesus, the Word of God is doing the talking in Isaiah and he is definately not talking about Mohammed. Now I will show the testimony that Jesus gave regarding the true servant, John the Baptist, who is the forerunner of the anointed (Messiah).
1. Jesus said that John is more than just a prophet.
2. Jesus testified that John is a light.
Jesus said he was that very Servant of the Lord, by reading from those verses in the synagogue and then saying he was fulfilling those prophecies.
IMHO, this servant was none other than Mohammad.
Reading the whole thing in context....I cant think of anybody else who was declared as a servant, who God said He upholds and declares as His "elect"....
Jesus said he was that very Servant of the Lord, by reading from those verses in the synagogue and then saying he was fulfilling those prophecies.
He came out of nowhere and emerged victorious over a land given in to idolatry.
Paul in Galatians explains that after his conversion he went off and met with certain followers of Jesus in Arabia and spend a very long time there, so the idea that Arabia was devoid of the knowledge of God and Jesus can not be accurate. Mohammad had dealings with Christians from the beginning of his ministry as a prophet or whatever.
2) Isaiah 42 has this curious verse involving "graven images: (idolatry)... a practise in the lands of Kedar and the wilderness.... which ONLY Mohammad put an end to. Jesus, did not directly address "graven" images in the lands he was preaching in, let alone bring an end to it.
Originally posted by sk0rpi0n
reply to post by Myrtales Instinct
Jesus, the Word of God is doing the talking in Isaiah and he is definately not talking about Mohammed. Now I will show the testimony that Jesus gave regarding the true servant, John the Baptist, who is the forerunner of the anointed (Messiah).
1. Jesus said that John is more than just a prophet.
2. Jesus testified that John is a light.
Fine.
Then please tell me...
a) Why does the chapter begin referring to a "servant". Is your position that Jesus was a "servant of God" and not "son of God"???
b) Why the mention of Kedar?
c) Who else, other than Mohammad influenced the people of Kedar? (Im saying that because its there in that chapter.)
d) As far as I know, there is no record of a biblical prophet ever having preached to the people of Kedar. Feel free to correct me if I am wrong.
edit on 23-11-2011 by sk0rpi0n because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by sk0rpi0n
He came out of nowhere and emerged victorious over a land given in to idolatry.
According to their own mythology and there is no way to know if it was true or not since anyone not agreeing with that version would have been automatically killed as being an infidel.
Here's Mathew in chapter 12 being very explicit about Jesus fulfilling Isaiah 42:
Paul in Galatians explains that after his conversion he went off and met with certain followers of Jesus in Arabia and spend a very long time there, so the idea that Arabia was devoid of the knowledge of God and Jesus can not be accurate. Mohammad had dealings with Christians from the beginning of his ministry as a prophet or whatever.