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Originally posted by wmd_2008
reply to post by MasterAndrew
Well if you bother to read the link Joey gave the data is there for you!! Also most demolitions are started at the base of the structure and not from the top down!
Would you also like to explain why the South Tower fell first although it was hit second its simple to understand if you know a little about structures and have some construction experience UNLIKE you!!!
I do note that both PLB and wmd 2008 do not want to answer the following questions:
Originally posted by -PLB-
reply to post by Darkwing01
His question doesn't even make sense. A single floor complete demolishing the floor below it. Who cares how long that takes. Or do you think that this is what the official explanation says? What is going on in those heads.
His question doesn't even make sense. A single floor complete demolishing the floor below it. Who cares how long that takes. Or do you think that this is what the official explanation says? What is going on in those heads.
These are about the total times, including the core collapses (AKA the "Spire").
The reason the South Tower fell first was the far far greater load
So please tell everyone what kind of expertise you have to comment on this type of situation have you worked with a structural Steelworkers company, I have, are you on site on a regular basis,I am, as part of your job do you advise engineers or architects,I do,can you test components and fixings on site to see if they will meet required loadings,I can do you have 30+ years in the job indeed.are you even that old now playing jenga or stacking burgers is not construction experience.
Originally posted by Darkwing01
Because we know how fast the building collapsed at: Accelerating at approximately 60% of freefall.
If all the momentum is taken out of the collapse with each successive impact there would be no average acceleration.
At 60% of freefall only at most 40% of the momentum can be converted to actually breaking joints and and crushing floors and ejecting beams. Add in losses, I am guessing no more than 10% efficiency and other frictions (like entanglement of the structure) and you end up with a best case scenario of only about 1% of the energy being available to do what you want it to do.
And I am being generous here.
I can't believe you now think the collapse time is COMPLETELY irrelevant. That's quite a step back.
What does a single floor completely demolishing the floor bellow it has to do with the tower collapses?
Originally posted by Darkwing01
The official theory on what caused the collapse to progress is Bazant crush-up crush-down theory, there are good reasons why pancaking progressive collapse theories don't work which I won't reiterate here (okay maybe I will: If the floors didn't give sufficient resistance to break up that should be stacked up as can be seen in all known progressive collapses, not scattered).
Bazant's process is different from known processes like verinage in that the upper portion acts as a coherent unit which gains momentum and mass as it falls, i.e. there is effectively no jolt as can be observed in verinage. For it to gain mass two things must happen: It must break apart the underlying structure, because that structure is not falling intact, and it must compress the material. The problem of compression is addressed by Heiwa in his reply to Bazant's latest paper on the matter.
Both the breaking apart and the compression imply that the lower floors were giving resistance, because you can't exert a force on something which is not exerting an equal and opposite force on you.
Now we know that the crush front was accelerating at about 60% of free-fall, that means that the lower portion could only have been giving resistance of 40% of the force of gravity. But the lower floors could support more than 200% of gravity, that doesn't mean the floor won't break but it DOES mean that the momentum would be taken out. So now the momentum is gone, and the floor is broken up, can you see that as each successive floor breaks the corresponding top floor breaks too (because at the very least it is weaker)?
So for the first impact you have however many floors above, for the next you have fewer, and the next you have fewer.
Can you see now why Verinage demolitions are started with a clean drop from roughly the MIDDLE of the structure?edit on 15-7-2011 by Darkwing01 because: (no reason given)
Can you see now why Verinage demolitions are started with a clean drop from roughly the MIDDLE of the structure?
Originally posted by Darkwing01
Now we know that the crush front was accelerating at about 60% of free-fall, that means that the lower portion could only have been giving resistance of 40% of the force of gravity. But the lower floors could support more than 200% of gravity
that doesn't mean the floor won't break but it DOES mean that the momentum would be taken out. So now the momentum is gone
and the floor is broken up, can you see that as each successive floor breaks the corresponding top floor breaks too (because at the very least it is weaker)?
So for the first impact you have however many floors above, for the next you have fewer, and the next you have fewer.