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Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by KJV1611
Alright finally we're on the same page, at least i understand what you're saying now. I agree works will not get you into "heaven" it is a free gift.
You see if you explain things clearly you get results...
I am wondering why you chose not to include the whole passages though, why do you pick certain verses and skip others?
43 Ye have heard that it hath been said, Thou shalt love thy neighbour, and hate thine enemy.
44 But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you;
45 That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven : for he maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust.
would you agree with this or no, you seem to have an issue with the jews... so you had a friend which was a jew would you love him any less then a christian friend?
Maybe you didn't notice it as important, but my recent post to you contained two questions.
This one wasn't answered:
".....Is this a general observation, in any way validated, or just a sophisticated way of saying, that YOUR bible-interpretation methodology is the 'correct' one. In that case why?"
this must of took at least 2-3 edits to spell check and make sure it sounded cohesive...would for me at least.
I must admit, that you momentarily have gotten around the standard objection to the bible by postulating an elaborate situation of subsets, containing special instructions for different groups of mankind, different 'ages' with different divine methodology and a rather flexible way of approaching bible autheticidity/validity.
There is no "circular arguments in complex elaboration" about what I'm saying. It just involves basic reading skills that are NOT taught in public school anymore after 1960.
But as far as I can see, this is just an extension of the common christian method of creating endless circular arguments in complex elaboration, where the lack of coherence and inner agreement in the bible just is hidden one layer deeper down in scholastics.
You still need to validate your methodology for bible-interpretation as compared to the 34.000 already existing.
"Nah, there is nothing confusing about doing good. Just do good, and not bad, easy enough huh? So what classifies as bad or "sin"? Once again that is what gets me banned so I'll retreat to Private messages if you want to know."]
Belonging to the group, which most likely would ban you, I have no interest in private communication on your elitism.
Originally posted by bogomil
Seen from the perspective of a christian-critic, the bible, its associated organisations/movements and their subsidiary 'help'-doctrines and/or methodologies for bible interpretation etc.....
...is a closed, self-contained system with no reference points outside this 'bubble' considered valid by competing/alternative 'reality-seeking' systems/models. *
Arguments from intrinsic bible/christian positions/perspectives are ofcourse based on circular reasoning, and with a book/a set of doctrines, which have strong self-contradictions (apart from its incompatibility with 'outer' perspectives) and a lack of logic/rational reference-points it's argumented with a great deal of rhetoric, excessive semantic gymnastics or even plain scholastics (a procedure which gives language per se a superior existence of its own, unfortunately rather unrelated to the 'reality' it was supposed to be a representation of).
"Aaaah...see, I have an invented a word, some words or an 'idea' ascribing something to something, and now I can start building air-castles from this".
Strategically hoping that the more extensive or elaborate I make it, the less will anybody be able to find anything 'real' to relate to in this. A mass of intertwined speculative arguments relating only to each other.
(Sorry about the possible 'high-brow' or 'flowery' language, but that's the technical approach to the present situation.)
So down to earth: The author of this thread has rather cleverly (but IMO not convincingly) tried to circumvent this bible-interpretation problem, by trying to reshuffle the inner components of the bible (in a revised way of the standard procedure of bible-selfjustification) so his/her methodology is THE methodology.
Furthermore also cleverly arranging a frame, where 'outer' considerations are off-topic.
As practically always when extremist christians are trying to push their ideology, the circular arguments eventually fall back on subjective 'authority', which in this case consists of cherry-picking some parts of the bible, supposedly 'proving' the existence of a 'correct' bible-reading procedure inside the bible. A kind of 'How to read this manual' or 'Manual inside the manual' thing.
This present post of mine can lead to many perspectives, but for the duration I would like to stay with the 'authority' facet. I have earlier participated on this thread with a short post on a 'defintion' issue (on wine/water drinking in a bible/christian context), and the thread author dismissed the defintion on this issue by referring to the original language this definition was taken from as 'dead':
Quote: ["The Holy bible is the authority in this instance, not some dead language. Get the Bible definition for wine and you have your answer. I posted it above ↑"]
So we have several options: SOME bible excerpts saying one thing, the 'old' language of said bibles saying another thing, the thread author's reliance on a modern language (has english become the official language of the alleged 'god'?) and the 'authority' of a relatively modern bible.
A situation containing several 'authority' components, as usual in bible-pushing contexts 'explained' by standard semantic maneuvers: IMO back to square one christian position(s): "I'm right, because I'm right".
*Efforts of hijacking parts/systematic methodologies/answers etc. from competing/alternative 'reality-seeking' systems are regularly made by some christian extremists, but always turn out to be fakes, unacceptable by the original system from where elements are hijacked. But that's not for this thread.edit on 27-3-2011 by bogomil because: syntax
how did could God lie if he didn't write the book?
Originally posted by mysticnoon
reply to post by Akragon
how did could God lie if he didn't write the book?
Exactly! So often I hear Christians say that either the whole Bible is true, or God is a liar. I have never really understood the logic behind such statements.
Originally posted by KJV1611
Yes, it was a WORLD flood. If it wasn't a flood that covered the whole world then God lied over 7 times just in chapters 6-9 of Genesis.
Also, for you math buffs out there, if all the population in the world was not killed save Noah and his seven, then there would be over 200000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 population in the world JUST by the time Jesus was born around 4 AD. That's a lot, and its is real number.
That would be enough humans on the planet to cover every square inch of 5 planet earths.
While the flood was on the earth, the world's weight increased by 55% which fell from the windows of heaven (outer space) which water is still with us, in the form of our Oceans.
This also explains why the ocean is salty.....and why you can find every element needed to create a human in sea water. Go figure?
But the real unanswered question the I have been trying track down is why did God give Noah the same commandment to Adam to:
GENESIS 1
28 And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and REPLENISH the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living thing that moveth upon the earth.
GENESIS 9
1 And God blessed Noah and his sons, and said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and REPLENISH the earth.
I can see why he said REPLENISH to Noah....but why Adam? These are the only two verses the word "REPLENISH" is used. How many times has God destroyed us.....
Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by KJV1611
how did could God lie if he didn't write the book?
Originally posted by Dr Cosma
Ok, I have a question.
Was Mohamed's coming foretold in the song of Solomon?
Originally posted by undo
reply to post by Lazarus Short
i think you may have two events tangled up. since there's evidence the mediterranean has been drawn down to a valley more than once in the ancient past, and then refilled by massive flood waters, more than once, before the flood of Mesopotamian infamy, i'd say there were already deep oceans on the earth when the flood story took place. i had a theory that the gates of deep (the bottomless pit/abyss of revelation 9) were involved in the water of mars transferring to the planet, and the flood story events took place long after the shallow seas had become oceans.edit on 28-3-2011 by undo because: (no reason given)
p.s. correction: zorgon contributed to the theory, when he suggested mars' water may have been basically pumped into the earth's oceans via the gate system. long story.edit on 28-3-2011 by undo because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by Akragon
Originally posted by mysticnoon
reply to post by Akragon
how did could God lie if he didn't write the book?
Exactly! So often I hear Christians say that either the whole Bible is true, or God is a liar. I have never really understood the logic behind such statements.
There is no logic behind that statement, God didn't write the book its as simple as that. Perhaps there were people who were inspired by God, but again i can show you recent texts even from the past few years that were also "inspired" by God....but they wern't written by God.
This is just peoples lack of understanding of what God is....