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Originally posted by dontreally
As a Torah following person i do obviously believe in a concept of 'resurrection' but i have no idea what that idea in itself entails. If it means the ressurection of matter - okay, fine. Thats a Jewish idea. In the far off messianic times there is a belief that matter and spirit will become so merged that there will simply not be a point of definitive separation between them.
What i dont get though is thr idea of a 'new testament'
I can understand the purpose in christianity for non Jews...but what possible purpose can christianity give to a Jew - whose ancestors experienced the greatest revelation mankind has ever recieved - the exodus from Egypt and the giving of the torah to millions of Jews at mt. sinai.
Why would G-d perform such a wonderous miracle only to follow it 1400 years later with some guy preaching a zoroastrianesque theology. The success of the christian church is due to nothing else but the Roman empire. Thus, one must logically deduce, if he understands the nature of politics that the Romans probably established christianity as a way to
- overcome the social influence of Judaism
- imbed their theological beliefs within its scripture (new testament)
- control the masses
And they accomplished all 3.
Originally posted by kallisti36
Revelation isn't all prophecy it speaks of what was, is, and shall be. The earlier chapters have already happened. Mary had already given birth to the Messiah by the time John began writing on Patmos, so chronologically speaking, the dragon had been cast down by then. Bear in mind that the Messiah was pre-existant in Heaven, so he could have seen Satan fall at any time in the past.
Originally posted by DISRAELI
reply to post by amkia
That doesn't count as interpretation of the Bible.
There is no reason why that isolated sentence should be referring to the story which you've invented for it..
Originally posted by DISRAELI
reply to post by amkia
This thread is an exercise in interpreting the intended meaning of a passage of Biblical prophecy..
There is a separate forum on this site for fictional writing.
Originally posted by DISRAELI
reply to post by amkia
I'm not here to prove the Bible.
As I said before, my purpose on this thead is to work towards an understanding of what, exactly, the Bible is trying to say.
The place for controversies between religions is in the "Conspiracy in religion" forum.
edit on 1-1-2011 by DISRAELI because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by DISRAELI
Originally posted by kallisti36
Revelation isn't all prophecy it speaks of what was, is, and shall be. The earlier chapters have already happened. Mary had already given birth to the Messiah by the time John began writing on Patmos, so chronologically speaking, the dragon had been cast down by then. Bear in mind that the Messiah was pre-existant in Heaven, so he could have seen Satan fall at any time in the past.
Thank you for that contribution.
I certainly agree with your comments on the chronology of Revelation. I've always been describing ch12 as a "flashback" chapter, because it takes the story back to the birth of Christ.
See,e.g., The Woman in Heaven
But I still think, as I was saying to Alethea, that the remark in Luke needs to be understood in context as part of the conversation.
If the conversation runs;
DISCIPLES; "We have been very successful."
JESUS; "Yes, I think your enemy is losing power."
Then that is a very natural and comprehensible piece of dialogue.
Whereas if the conversation runs;
DISCIPLES; "We have been very successful."
JESUS; "Yes, and Satan rebelled against God before the world was created."
Then Jesus seems to be giving an answer which has no connection with what he has just heard.
My preference for the first version doesn't amount to assuming that the disciples had a complete understanding of what Jesus said. In fact the gospel doen't mention any kind of reaction. But surely it's reasonable to suppose that a person's conversation should at least make sense to himself? That Jesus would answer the people who addressed him in ways which responded to what they said (though sometimes obliquely), instead of being complete non-sequiturs?
And, yes, the Messiah was pre-existent. But could Christ, on earth, have had any conscious memory of that pre-existence? The early church was at great pains to establish the point that Christ was fully human as well as being fully divine- with a mind which was fully human. It seems to me that the full humanity of his mind is in danger of being compromised if he''s attributed with memories of pre-existence, during the period of his life on earth. That seems to be another reason to question the idea that he could be recalling a pre-Creation "fall of Satan", or any kind of "fall of Satan" based on such memories.
edit on 1-1-2011 by DISRAELI because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by amkia
What fallen angel..??
Imagine a huge/deadly weapon array in earth’s orbit being zapped in galactic wars between “what ever forces” and crashed down somewhere (in depth of Pacific Ocean 11 km. to you and me) called Satan/Lucifer or what ever hundred of thousands of years before.
Originally posted by kallisti36
you've bumped into one of the earliest points of contention in the Church. At the council of Chalcedon, they came to the conclusion that Christ was fully man and fully God. Not everyone agreed with this; these are the monophysites. They believe that Christ was the Holy Spirit personified in man. He had all of the weaknesses of the human frame, but was of one divine nature.