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Originally posted by Snarf
Also - it's not violating the constitution. I love how you, and others, cite this so often, saying it over and over and over again, but never once can you point to where and how.
The Chief Justice rejected this argument, and held that Congress only has the power to regulate the channels of commerce, the instrumentalities of commerce, and action that substantially affects interstate commerce. He declined to further expand the Commerce Clause, writing that “[t]o do so would require us to conclude that the Constitution's enumeration of powers does not presuppose something not enumerated, and that there never will be a distinction between what is truly national and what is truly local. This we are unwilling to do.”
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.
If you want to debate the unconstitutionality of this crap, it would help if you actually knew something about the Constitution first.
Originally posted by Snarf
Nobody, not one, to this date, has ever produced the wording int he constitution that says government cannot cover healthcare.
Originally posted by whatukno
reply to post by brainwrek
But it does have the constitutional right to regulate Commerce among the states.
That is in the constitution.
The 10th amendment does not apply because Article I Section 8 gives Congress the authority to regulate commerce.
the power of Congress under article I, section 8 of the Constitution to regulate commerce “among the several states” authorizes a federal statute requiring individuals to purchase health insurance. The Court in Gonzales v. Raich (2005), its most recent extended consideration of the scope of the Commerce Clause, upheld the authority of Congress to prohibit the cultivation of marijuana “for personal medical purposes on the advice of a physician.” The Court distinguished two earlier cases, Lopez and Morrison, in which former Justice Rhenquist, writing for a 5-4 Court, had held that the Commerce Clause does not authorize Congress to pass non-economic criminal laws. The Court noted that those cases had involved “brief, single-subject” criminal statutes rather than a complex, reticulate scheme to regulate “the production, distribution, and consumption of commodities,” like illicit drugs, at issue in Raich.
As Mark notes, the Court has recognized for over a half century that insurance is economic activity. The health insurance reform legislation Congress is contemplating is as least as complex as the drug regulation scheme upheld in Raich, and the components of the reform legislation are at least as mutually dependent. The individual mandate is a key component of the reform scheme, as underwriting reform is not possible if healthy individuals can opt out of the risk pool at will.
The Court also noted in Raich, again citing precedents that go back to the 1930s, that the Commerce Clause not only authorizes Congress to regulate the channels and instrumentalities of interstate commerce, but also intrastate “activities that substantially affect interstate commerce.” (Justice Scalia, concurring, opined that more precisely, “Congress’s regulatory authority over intrastate activities that are not themselves part of interstate commerce . . . derives from the Necessary and Proper Clause,” because this authority is necessary to implement the power of Congress to regulate commerce among the states.) Thus, even though the individual purchase of insurance takes place locally, it is still, like growing marijuana for personal medical use, subject to regulation under the Interstate Commerce clause.
Originally posted by Snarf
The constitution, as it was written, did not contain many of the 'rights' we have today. Those rights required AMENDMENTS to the ORIGINAL constitution.