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Originally posted by Mike_A
I think you’re making far too many assumptions.
Your most problematic one is that we are capable of assimilating outside stimuli, in a meaningful way, while asleep. Experimental evidence shows that this only occurs when we are about to wake up which explains your Yankees “dream”.
Originally posted by Mike_A
Even if it were possible you are also assuming there are means by which someone can present a stimulus without using anything detectable by our senses.
Originally posted by Mike_A
You’re also claiming that dreams are a process of allocating experience to memory which is not true. There is some evidence to suggest that dreams do have a part to play in memory consolidation but as far as I’m aware this relates to semantic not episodic memory.
Originally posted by Mike_A
I think you’re over estimating the effects of conditioning, for example operant (instrumental) conditioning requires some form of reward or punishment to occur following a certain behaviour.
Originally posted by Mike_A
To what extent do you think subliminal stimuli can effect us?
Again...please review the opening post. I think the last link provided shows just how many patents there are for the presenting of stimulus that is virtually undetectable.
So what is semantic memory? Again, the opening post...every bit of information is given a chemical signature. That incudes semantic. Early in our lives, in today's society, learning is very episodic. Who is to say that this association doesn't continue throughout one's life?
Conditioning is inherent and a basic point, in my opinion, to the extent that it is an assumed component.
Originally posted by Mike_A
I thought you were arguing that we can be unconsciously influenced while we are asleep?
Originally posted by MemoryShock
See, if subliminals are given to an individual during the dream process then it would supposedly follow that these subliminals would piggy back to the associative allocations of experience (I actually have issue with the time frame of this process; I think that subliminals in the dream process would be considered experience by the brain and won't necessarily be involved in the 'download process' until the next dream cycle) and inflect the memory of experience if the subliminals were custom tailored to induce a specific and consistent emotive reaction.
Originally posted by Mike_A
This is completely unsupported conjecture.
Why would it follow that subliminal stimuli would piggy back on existing memories as they are encoded?
Originally posted by Mike_A
I just don't know where you're getting half of your stuff from; for example the majority of our brain is focused on the visual sense? Memory is allocated by sensory perception? Not according to any of the literature I've read!
Originally posted by Mike_A
Elsewhere your posts are very confused for example
Originally posted by Mike_A
“What that means is that the highly reactive/emotive experiences will have a higher chemical priority”. What does that mean? It sounds authoritative but doesn't actually make any sense from a psychological perspective; what's a "chemical priority"?
Where is the evidence for anything that you have said about dreams and subliminal influencing?
Originally posted by Mike_A
A patent doesn't mean anything, I could patent a machine for communicating with ducks telepathically if I had the money and inclination but it wouldn't add any validity to the claim that we can't talk to ducks with our minds.
Originally posted by Mike_A
Semantic memory consists of discrete pieces of information such as names, facts, figures etc. Episodic memories are experiences.
Originally posted by Mike_A
You were claiming that “dreams are a process intended to allocate recent experience into associative long term memory” whereas current research suggests that dreams may have a role in encoding semantic memory and not episodic.
Originally posted by Mike_A
And the whole “information is given a chemical signature” thing, since when? Where did you get that from? It's pseudo-science completely unrelated to the real world study of memory.
Originally posted by Mike_A
Again, I don't know what you're saying in that sentence, do you know what I mean by operant conditioning? As I said, conditioning cannot take place while we are asleep due to the need to recognise some form of reward or punishment, or a relationship between two stimuli.
Originally posted by Mike_A
I just don't think you've presented any evidence to support what you are suggesting and the existing evidence (eg Simon & Emmons, 1956) show that you are almost certainly wrong.
Originally posted by Mike_A
reply to post by MemoryShock
I just don't think you've presented any evidence to support what you are suggesting and the existing evidence (eg Simon & Emmons, 1956) show that you are almost certainly wrong.
The dream process is certainly implicated in the downloading of experience to memory. I am not the only one saying that.
As well, it seems pretty obvious that something happens during the unconscious state as it is a biological necessity. Since the indivisdual is comprised of a physiological system more or less designed to take in stimulii from the environment, why would it follow that the unconscious state negates such a function?
I may not have laboratory conditions but it does follow that experience encountered will be then placed upon the pathway to memory.
And if you don't think that the visual sense is first in the hierarchy of sensory percepotion then I would ask of you the following:
When was the last time you consciousally remembered a smell?
Granted. I have a very disorganized thought process and what makes sense to me is at times difficult to convey in words. But the disjointed expression is not a valid basis for discounting my thoughts...
So what I mean when I say "Chemical priority" is that the experiences that are most closely identifiable to the concerns of an individual will likely be given the most "attention" during the dream process.
Where is the evidence against it?
But how does the physiological process identify semantic memory?
My point that early childhood is a semantic memory as episodic memory bears repeating...
My personal opinion is that the distinction is individual and even temporal within the individual. A scholar is going to have different parts of the brain firing than a factory worker. The difference is physical/mental routine.
Umm...So information in the brain is comprised of what then...
what I was attempting to say was that if the 'downloading' of information is a process of allocating recent experience to memory based on association than the foundation of conditioning is already there for most adults. Hence, the foundation of association could be used to inflect subliminal interaction. The implicit recognition of positive/negative reward/punishment is already there.
Originally posted by Mike_A
Originally posted by MemoryShock The dream process is certainly implicated in the downloading of experience to memory. I am not the only one saying that.
As I have said this is related to semantic memory not episodic as you suggested.
Originally posted by Mike_A
“Something” is a very broad term so to assume that means what you are saying is more than jumping the gun.
Originally posted by Mike_A
As for negating the function of receiving stimuli I didn't say we can't process stimuli, I said that we can't assimilate a stimulus in a meaningful way which is what would be required for much of what you are saying.
Originally posted by Mike_A
A mother waking up because of the sound of a crying child is not the same as implanting new concepts while asleep.
Originally posted by MemoryShock
I may not have laboratory conditions but it does follow that experience encountered will be then placed upon the pathway to memory.
Originally posted by Mike_A
It may seem intuitive but it doesn't mean its true. Memory is not a conveyor belt whereby every experience or fact learned is placed in a line to be processed one after another.
But that doesn't address my criticism. I understood from your post that you meant that a subliminal stimuli would piggy back on an existing memory as it was being encoded. Why?
Originally posted by MemoryShock
And if you don't think that the visual sense is first in the hierarchy of sensory percepotion then I would ask of you the following:
When was the last time you consciousally remembered a smell?
Originally posted by Mike_A
That is incredibly simplistic!
What exactly is a hierarchy of senses and how do you sort them? If you think vision is so important because it is most available in your memory then I would invite you to talk to someone who lacks proprioception! I know I'd rather be blind.
Originally posted by Mike_A
But the fact is that in terms of the amount of brain that is devoted to vision is not greater than either the somatosensory or auditory cortices.
Originally posted by Mike_A
Ah ok, but the term “chemical priority” doesn't mean anything in the psychology of memory (or at least I've not come across it); this is what I meant by confused.
Originally posted by Mike_A
As I said research suggests that we cannot assimilate new information in a meaningful way while we are asleep.
Originally posted by MemoryShock
But how does the physiological process identify semantic memory?
Originally posted by Mike_A
What do you mean? It's not really a matter of the brain saying “ok what type of memory is this? Ok send that one to the hippocampus, that one goes to the amygdala” etc. It's more a question of why does semantic memory go through this route and episodic another and that I don't know but nevertheless they do. And dreams are, possibly, involved with semantic memory which are not experiences.
Originally posted by MemoryShock
My point that early childhood is a semantic memory as episodic memory bears repeating...
Originally posted by Mike_A
You'll have to rephrase that.
Originally posted by MemoryShock
My personal opinion is that the distinction is individual and even temporal within the individual. A scholar is going to have different parts of the brain firing than a factory worker. The difference is physical/mental routine.
Originally posted by Mike_A
That may be your opinion but the evidence suggests that you're wrong.
Originally posted by Mike_A
Could you provide a detailed example, saying what effect you would aim to have on the person (for example, influence them to go out and buy a new Ford or whatever you are suggesting is possible), how you would do it and explaining the exact processes involved (conditioning, priming, whatever).
Originally posted by Mike_A
As for the Simons, Emmons paper I don't think there's a free copy online, you could look on Google scholar but I think you'd have to pay for it.
After considerable exploratory work (IS), the present experiment was designed to study the effect of presenting material at different levels between wakefulness and deep sleep on the ability of Ss (a) to respond to it immediately, and (b) to recall it later upon awakening. It was hypothesized that learning during sleep was improbable.
Where is the distinction, chemically, between semantic and episodic memory? I think the terms are convenient for communication but I seriously doubt that modern day science (even the uber Black Ops folk) have what it takes to measure this. As such...extrapolation and supposition are useful tools.
If memory exists (and there is noone to contend that) then it does follow that there is a physiological process to the creation and retention of it.
Actually, if you had read my post correctly, I said I had issue with the timing. I think that it doesn't piggyback nprecisely because a directly applied subliminal will be interpreted as experience by the brain (in my opinion). The subsequent processing to memory would occur later.
Wonderful. To determine the complex one must fundamentalize. Are there issues with the strategy? Absolutely. But Visual and Auditory stimulii take up the greater part of our consciousness. Shall I provide those links?
I love that you brought up somatosense. It is huge!! As it is roughly the sense that determines where the individual and the external differentiate. And the reality of such in social situations (a touch) is huge in NLP circles for the anchoring of an instance.
Would you think that Subliminal Operant Conditioning is possible if a applied from birth and given such a specific intent?
I contend that this process is not entirely understood. Hence my contention that semantic memory can be associated with episodic memory.
Learning is an experience. In childhood, learning is the experience.
Are all men created equal?
No. Because the point of this thread is for comprehension...not to encourage manipulation
Originally posted by Mike_A
reply to post by MemoryShock
But it is all conjecture, what are you basing this on? What’s the use of making these claims without grounding it in known science? It’s no good just saying “in my opinion”.
No. Because the point of this thread is for comprehension...not to encourage manipulation
I’m asking because it would help my comprehension of what it is you are claiming could/does happen. Maybe I’m overestimating the effects you are saying could happen, but I won’t know if you don’t give an example.
Are all men created equal?
All men are born with generally the same brain structure and those that aren’t confirm what is known about the roles of each discreet organ.
It appears that was an attempt to ask for a more pure form of a hypothesis.
However, if examples are given before a pure hypothesis, then somehow they are seen as mere opinion, which is stated as "no good."
People have the capability to grow similar brain functionality. That is grow as in normal human cell growth. That does not mean they will have the same brain structure.
Some people are more visual, others are more auditory. To say that these types of people have the same brain structure is to deny adaptive processes.
I think these other threads on depression provide some of the needed evidence that further extend the adaptive processes (that even continues throughout the lifetime):
Depression: An Adaptive Evolutionary Trait?
It just seems to contradictory to expect the same exact brain structure for each human body. We can expect similar brain functionality even if the structure is completely unique (just to state this point).
Originally posted by Mike_A
... MS made claims about influencing behaviour through the presentation of subliminal stimuli while the subject is asleep. I want to know the exact process by which this happens and what evidence there is to suggest that it can happen in the way that he describes and have the results he claims.
And all this brain/memory stuff. I mean if you remember a past life, which some people do, I would say the brain is a pretty insignificant memory device. I would say the mind isn't really a part of the brain.
Originally posted by Mike_A
The risk is minimal, if you’ve figured it out you can be fairly sure other people have too.
Originally posted by MemoryShock
They were looking for immediate results...something that can't be predicted from such. Explicit comprehension comes from context to the individual. Not the experimenter.
Originally posted by Mike_A
reply to post by soficrow
The anecdote doesn't show anything in relation to the OP's claim since it involved your waking state as the main contributor to your thoughts.
The OP is talking about influencing people while they are asleep.
The same with neuromarketing. I am not disputing the effects of priming or conditioning or mental associations, they are well studied and understood phenomena.
What I am disputing is the ability to use these methods to significantly influence a person while they are asleep in the manner the OP claims.