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Originally posted by badmedia
"state space (the set of all possible states of the universe)" = that which is all knowing, that without limitation.
And then:
"within which a smaller (fractal) subset of state space is embedded." = the limitation/experience.
Originally posted by RogerT
.... seems obvious, no?
reality as we experience it is merely a momentary manifestation from the field of all possibility.
Originally posted by Astyanax
It is worth remembering that all ideas have but one source: the human brain.
I would, with your permission, prefer to discuss the scientific implications of this postulate, in particular its consequences for quantum mechanics, string theory and quantum gravity. Remember, this is the Science & Technology forum. The philosophical or metaphysical implications are doubtless interesting, and if you would like to start a thread about them in the Philosophy forum I should be more than happy to participate. I'm sure more than one other contributer to this thread would do so, too.
Thank you, RogerT, for your patience.
Originally posted by Astyanax
reply to post by makinho21
Makinho21, please don't feed the little furry feller. You know he never gives up.
I really, really, really want to keep this on topic. Anyone who understands the potential importance of the ISP is smart enough to see that Badmedia's ideas aren't even in the ballpark. Leave him alone and let's move on.
Originally posted by Johnmike
I like the refusal of the mods to moderate this thread.
Isn't it nice? And we wonder why ATS is going where it's going.
Originally posted by OmegaLogos
Personally it doesn't explode the percieved paradoxes but just defines and confines them within this postulated "LAW". This defininition redfines the percieved paradox and in doing so hey presto with the semantic wand waving they are no longer ghostlike apparitions but become instead real reflections in the mirror! Basiscally its a new symantic interpretation on the infinite universe theory which they have added a caveat that states that at any 1 plancks second unit of time being considered, that everything everywhere happens but only a small portion of that happening is able to be squeezed into the subset of existence that is considered "REAL" [i.e. 1 plancks second subset of time] and therefor exhibits phenomena registered as actuality over that entire subset!
Personal Disclosure: IMO:- ALL states EXIST! But only SOME are EXPRESSED!
P.S. Uncle Albert clearly stated "God DOES NOT play dice with the universe!" where as this postulate states that "God DOES play dice with the universe but the dice are LOADED!". They didn't get rid of uncertainty! They just codified HOW the uncertainty is accounted for!
Originally posted by makinho21
But yes, as soon as "god" comes in to the topic, the discussion loses most of it's worth.
If states of physical reality necessarily lie on I, then points p∉I in state space are to be considered literally ‘unreal’. In a hypothetical ‘oracle’ theory of physics which (non-computability notwithstanding) had perfect knowledge of I, these points of unreality would be an irrelevance. However, for practically relevant theories (such as quantum theory and any algorithmic extension), the intricate structure of I is unknown and these points of unreality cannot be ignored.
It is, of course, one of the great mysteries of quantum theory (some would say the central mystery) as to the physical reality of the superposed state. The Invariant Set Postulate provides a simple answer to this: on the invariant set, and only on it, |ψ〉=α|A〉+β|B〉 can be interpreted as defining a probability of two discrete alternatives based on a well-defined sample space.
Originally posted by OmegaLogos
broad set eh? OK RE: "that everything everywhere"! :shk:
and furthermore RE: "only a very much smaller set of those outcomes is actually possible in physical reality."...smaller set eh? OK RE: "a small portion of that happening is able to be squeezed into the subset of existence that is considered "REAL"." :shk:
Personal Disclosure: Are they/you/we sure "the state space I'm modelling is therefore 'non-computable'" = "well defined sample space"???
But, in the amp example wouldn't the circuits that fry also be along its own range. And so if you also moved that variable around, you could get the values in 1 setting, which were not possible in another setting?
The theory suggests the existence of a state space (the set of all possible states of the universe), within which a smaller (fractal) subset of state space is embedded.