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originally posted by: MotherMayEye
a reply to: Gryphon66
Section 2 is clear that it doesn't take a complete deprivation of the right to vote to sanction a state..."in any way abridged" being the key phrase there. So, I'm not sure widespread fraud is the test.
I guess it remains to be seen. Or not. Based on everything else presented to the courts, I am guessing 'or not' (IOW...we won't get to hear the argument). But, of course, I could be wrong.
Representatives shall be apportioned among the several States according to their respective numbers, counting the whole number of persons in each State, excluding Indians not taxed. But when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice President of the United States, Representatives in Congress, the Executive and Judicial officers of a State, or the members of the Legislature thereof, is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State.
originally posted by: Gryphon66
How exactly does Texas have a right to determine what another State does or other counties do?
What do you see as the argument about Equal Protection in this instance.
originally posted by: Gryphon66
... and yet, to date, no fraud has been proven in any court after more than 50 cases.
Anyone can claim anything, proving it is another matter.
originally posted by: tanstaafl
originally posted by: Gryphon66
How exactly does Texas have a right to determine what another State does or other counties do?
What do you see as the argument about Equal Protection in this instance.
Other States violating their own Constitutions and the Federal constitution resulting in massive election fraud, also results in the disenfrachisement of Texan voters and all other voters.
originally posted by: tanstaafl
originally posted by: Gryphon66
... and yet, to date, no fraud has been proven in any court after more than 50 cases.
Anyone can claim anything, proving it is another matter.
You don't have to prove fraud to prove that States changed election laws in violation of their own constitutions and the Federal Constitution.
Are you really that dense?
originally posted by: hiImBigbob
originally posted by: FauxMulder
For what it's worth, reading around the web, almost every law expert or law professor weighing in is saying this has ZERO chance of SCOTUS hearing the case.
So that means it has 100% chance of SCOTUS hearing it. I bet my post ages better than yours.
originally posted by: tanstaafl
originally posted by: Gryphon66
How exactly does Texas have a right to determine what another State does or other counties do?
What do you see as the argument about Equal Protection in this instance.
Other States violating their own Constitutions and the Federal constitution resulting in massive election fraud, also results in the disenfrachisement of Texan voters and all other voters.
originally posted by: tanstaafl
originally posted by: Gryphon66
... and yet, to date, no fraud has been proven in any court after more than 50 cases.
Anyone can claim anything, proving it is another matter.
You don't have to prove fraud to prove that States changed election laws in violation of their own constitutions and the Federal Constitution.
Are you really that dense?
originally posted by: Gryphon66
originally posted by: network dude
It doesn't take a totally derp free mind to understand "the topic" of a thread and what it entails to stay within that topic, but then Derp runs deep in some.
Indeed. That must be why I've made around 50 posts about the topic, most with citations, eh?
Thanks again for the very astute advice though, as always.
originally posted by: St Udio
This Guy:
justusaknight.com...
the web site owner/Author/ Speaker ... a guy named Justice
puts forth a presentation of the Texas - Supreme Court legal paper/law suit...
this action at the 'midnight hour' by Texas, is what Trump had spoken of in the Alert that BIG Things were in-the-works !
this action, pointing to 4 States in particular, is not a Trump political move --- It is a equal rights case about the unequal treatment by 4 or more States for the general election voters being denied their rightful value of the vote being negated by unconstitutional practices by GA/MI/WI & the 4th State i forgot the name of
ETA; Pennsylvania
originally posted by: Snarl
originally posted by: Klassified
originally posted by: AugustusMasonicus
a reply to: carniv0re
You can thank me for finding the full case and a source everyone was asking for.
Hey, I found the actual paperwork on the suit.
Thanks for that, BTW!!
ETA: Trump is finally Tweeting it out too. LMAO
originally posted by: FauxMulder
originally posted by: hiImBigbob
originally posted by: FauxMulder
For what it's worth, reading around the web, almost every law expert or law professor weighing in is saying this has ZERO chance of SCOTUS hearing the case.
So that means it has 100% chance of SCOTUS hearing it. I bet my post ages better than yours.
I don't really give a rats arse how it ages. Just an observation.
originally posted by: network dude
originally posted by: Gryphon66
originally posted by: network dude
It doesn't take a totally derp free mind to understand "the topic" of a thread and what it entails to stay within that topic, but then Derp runs deep in some.
Indeed. That must be why I've made around 50 posts about the topic, most with citations, eh?
Thanks again for the very astute advice though, as always.
www.abovetopsecret.com...
that is a link to the OP in this thread. I'm not a smart man, but I know what love is. And I know what the topic is as well. Can you point to where in the OP the topic of the 50 suites others filed and were laughed out of court were mentioned? That way, I won't have to keep searching for ways to make your post not look so Derpy.