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Originally posted by Al Davison
OK, I somehow completely fail to understand how this last post is in anyway relevant to the discussion of the facts concerning a particular historical (or not) event.
Care to explain? I'm all ears.
Originally posted by helen670
It was foretold in the Old Testament what would happen......
Trying to fit Jesus into the Tanakh (OT) is like trying to stuff a fat man into a Speedo. Eventually, it falls apart at the seams.
This was foretold in the Book of Exodus 12:46: the Paschal lamb, transfiguration of the Lord Jesus Christ, had to be eaten without any bones being broken and what remained, had to be burned.
I would love to suggest a course in basic Judaism. That would seriously help you understand your "proof" texts. "It shall be eaten in one house: you shall not take any of the flesh outside the house; nor shall you break a bone of it." So let's see. Who ate Jesus? Exodus 12:46 is two of the 613 mitzvohs. And literally, it's part of the rules for Pesach. In case you don't know, the bone used is representative of the lamb's blood on the doorposts in Egypt.
There is another section of the Bible that prophesies: “they shall look unto me whom they have pierced” (Zach. 12:10). In this segment, Jehovah is depicted as the Messiah that had been pierced by His people, and having looked upon the wounded Messiah, the same people are presented as bringing penitence with weeping and sobbing before Him.
I'm going to assume you mean Zechariah. Christians tend to use the above as part of a second coming prophecy which is NOT a part of Judaism. All of the messianic scriptures in the Tanakh are about a first coming. Now as if you are reading any other book, you must read the entire paragraph to get the meaning. "In that day shall there be a great mourning in Jerusalem, as the mourning of Hadadrimmon in the Valley of Megiddo." Let's look at the keyword....as. The prophecy is about the General of the Israeli Army in the final war of the world. He will be killed and the Jews will mourn his death like that of King Josiah. I think it's kind of funny and odd at the same time that Christians use this as a second coming prophecy when John refers to it as a first coming (19.37).
These words are slowly being fulfilled with the Jews that condemned Christ to death — and will continue to be fulfilled to the end of the world, when there will be a universal conversion of Jews to Christ, as foretold by Saint Apostle Paul in his Epistle to the Romans 11:25-26.
I guess it won't be the first time a Jew will die at the hands of Christianity. But seriously, you don't seem to have any working knowledge of what the Jewish mosiach will be. IF Jesus had a sperm donor, then he could claim the tribal heritage. In Jewish law, a Jew is a Jew by way of the mother. The father provides the tribal heritage should he also be a Jew (and technically, he should be). Joseph was said to be of the House of David which would give Jesus ONE messianic prophecy fulfillment. The other things such as the river in Egypt running dry, new fruit on the trees in Israel each month, death ceases, the dead resurrected, an ingathering of Israel, all Jews will agree, etc would have happened. We can see that none of that happened. Another thing that has gotten twisted is that the mosiach is NOT G-d, nor is he part of G-d. There have been plenty other "messiahs" throughout the history of Judaism, including Moses, etc. If I had to pick a place for Jesus to appear in the Tanakh, it would be embedded in the parshas Emor about the Jewish woman with the Egyptian suitor whose son blasphemes G-d and is put to death. Look closely and the Hebrew name for Jesus just very well may appear!
Originally posted by darkelf
Other than the writings of Josephus and the NT, are there any other ancient documents that mention Jesus? Other than the NT is there any other document that decribes the death, burial or resurection? I ask this because most people get their impression of this series of events from the NT. If we are to exclude the NT as a basis for our belief, what do we use to base our opinions? And how could a conspiracy of this magnitude have been kept secret for 2000 years.
Originally posted by Atomix
I always thought Jesus did die at the cross and then Mary fled to France and gave birth to Sarah.
The anastehic could have been mixed into the sponge and thats how Jesus survived the cross.
His arms would tear off because of the pressure.
Originally posted by Nygdan
Originally posted by Atomix
I always thought Jesus did die at the cross and then Mary fled to France and gave birth to Sarah.
Why do you beleive this completely unsupported and rather modern theory??
Originally posted by darkelf
I think he may be suggesting that an anesthetic would make Jesus appear to dead. Then he could be revived later on. I doubt that they had any anesthetic strong enough to reduce the pain by very much, let alone mimic death.