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Therefore, we do make a distinction until such time as the U.S. pulls out of that U.N. agreement.
originally posted by: Krakatoa
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Krakatoa
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: Krakatoa
Please cite that law.
Asylum seekers, per international law MUST apply for asylum in the very first country they enter.
CONVENTION AND PROTOCOL RELATING TO THE STATUS OF REFUGEES
Article 31
REFUGEES UNLAWFULLY IN THE COUNTRY OF REFUGEE
1. The Contracting States shall not impose penalties, on account of their illegal entry or presence, on refugees who, coming directly from a territory where their life or freedom was threatened in the sense of article 1, enter or are present in their territory without authorization, provided they present themselves without delay to the authorities and show good cause for their illegal entry or presence.
Traversing several countries to get to the U.S., while refusing an offer of asylum by a country in which they are currently located, is not compliant with this article.
UN law is not US law.
But the U.S. is a signatory of the 1967 protocol in this case, which includes article 1 as stated above. So therefore, your comment is moot.
If the U.S. was not, then we could simply refuse access outright based upon a presidential EO.
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: Krakatoa
Therefore, we do make a distinction until such time as the U.S. pulls out of that U.N. agreement.
As long as our laws do not violate the agreement, they are the law. Come to think of it, even if they violate the agreement they would still be the law.
America Only!
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Krakatoa
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Krakatoa
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: Krakatoa
Please cite that law.
Asylum seekers, per international law MUST apply for asylum in the very first country they enter.
CONVENTION AND PROTOCOL RELATING TO THE STATUS OF REFUGEES
Article 31
REFUGEES UNLAWFULLY IN THE COUNTRY OF REFUGEE
1. The Contracting States shall not impose penalties, on account of their illegal entry or presence, on refugees who, coming directly from a territory where their life or freedom was threatened in the sense of article 1, enter or are present in their territory without authorization, provided they present themselves without delay to the authorities and show good cause for their illegal entry or presence.
Traversing several countries to get to the U.S., while refusing an offer of asylum by a country in which they are currently located, is not compliant with this article.
UN law is not US law.
But the U.S. is a signatory of the 1967 protocol in this case, which includes article 1 as stated above. So therefore, your comment is moot.
If the U.S. was not, then we could simply refuse access outright based upon a presidential EO.
Which came first 1967 or 1980?
The later law supersedes the earlier.
The presidential executive order must be lawful compliant with existing law otherwise a 9th circuit judge might just rule it out!
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Krakatoa
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Krakatoa
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: Krakatoa
Please cite that law.
Asylum seekers, per international law MUST apply for asylum in the very first country they enter.
CONVENTION AND PROTOCOL RELATING TO THE STATUS OF REFUGEES
Article 31
REFUGEES UNLAWFULLY IN THE COUNTRY OF REFUGEE
1. The Contracting States shall not impose penalties, on account of their illegal entry or presence, on refugees who, coming directly from a territory where their life or freedom was threatened in the sense of article 1, enter or are present in their territory without authorization, provided they present themselves without delay to the authorities and show good cause for their illegal entry or presence.
Traversing several countries to get to the U.S., while refusing an offer of asylum by a country in which they are currently located, is not compliant with this article.
UN law is not US law.
But the U.S. is a signatory of the 1967 protocol in this case, which includes article 1 as stated above. So therefore, your comment is moot.
If the U.S. was not, then we could simply refuse access outright based upon a presidential EO.
Which came first 1967 or 1980?
The later law supersedes the earlier.
The presidential executive order must be lawful compliant with existing law otherwise a 9th circuit judge might just rule it out!
originally posted by: Zanti Misfit
a reply to: Phage
The U.N. Has No Legal Power in the United States to Dictate Any Policy Concerning Immigration .
Although President Enrique Peña Nieto of Mexico said when he announced the so-called Southern Border Plan that it was to “protect the human rights of migrants as they pass through Mexico,” the opposite has happened. By the Mexican government’s own accounting, 72,000 migrants have been rescued from kidnappers in recent years. They are often tortured and held for ransom. The survivors tell of being enslaved working in marijuana fields or forced into prostitution. Many are killed — sometimes they have organs harvested — in what’s become an invisible, silent slaughter. The government push has been interpreted as open season on migrants who have become prey to an exploding number of criminals and the police who rob, rape, beat and kill them.
originally posted by: Spiramirabilis
a reply to: Krakatoa
They're still coming here directly. It says nothing about them having to stop or accept asylum from a neighboring country
This is from 2015:
I went to Mexico last month to see the effects of the crackdown against migrants, who are being hunted down on a scale never seen before and sent back to countries where gangs and drug traffickers have taken control of whole sections of territory. More than a decade ago, I rode on top of seven freight trains up the length of Mexico with child migrants to chronicle hellish experiences at the hands of gangs, bandits and corrupt cops who preyed on youngsters as they journeyed north. Compared with today, that trip was child’s play.
Although President Enrique Peña Nieto of Mexico said when he announced the so-called Southern Border Plan that it was to “protect the human rights of migrants as they pass through Mexico,” the opposite has happened. By the Mexican government’s own accounting, 72,000 migrants have been rescued from kidnappers in recent years. They are often tortured and held for ransom. The survivors tell of being enslaved working in marijuana fields or forced into prostitution. Many are killed — sometimes they have organs harvested — in what’s become an invisible, silent slaughter. The government push has been interpreted as open season on migrants who have become prey to an exploding number of criminals and the police who rob, rape, beat and kill them.
Mexico isn't a safe haven. Central America is in crisis. The refugees are going to keep coming
originally posted by: Krakatoa
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Krakatoa
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Krakatoa
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: Krakatoa
Please cite that law.
Asylum seekers, per international law MUST apply for asylum in the very first country they enter.
CONVENTION AND PROTOCOL RELATING TO THE STATUS OF REFUGEES
Article 31
REFUGEES UNLAWFULLY IN THE COUNTRY OF REFUGEE
1. The Contracting States shall not impose penalties, on account of their illegal entry or presence, on refugees who, coming directly from a territory where their life or freedom was threatened in the sense of article 1, enter or are present in their territory without authorization, provided they present themselves without delay to the authorities and show good cause for their illegal entry or presence.
Traversing several countries to get to the U.S., while refusing an offer of asylum by a country in which they are currently located, is not compliant with this article.
UN law is not US law.
But the U.S. is a signatory of the 1967 protocol in this case, which includes article 1 as stated above. So therefore, your comment is moot.
If the U.S. was not, then we could simply refuse access outright based upon a presidential EO.
Which came first 1967 or 1980?
The later law supersedes the earlier.
The presidential executive order must be lawful compliant with existing law otherwise a 9th circuit judge might just rule it out!
Please, provide a valid source (not Wikipedia) stating the 1980 agreement supersedes article 1....and that the U.S. is a signatory.
And the definition of "is" is what again?
originally posted by: Spiramirabilis
a reply to: Krakatoa
And the definition of "is" is what again?
You're the one using language to try and determine law, along with personal preferences. As if a word should prevent us from doing the right thing
It doesn't matter. These asylum laws were put in place for a reason
Economics, politics, war, climate change - these things are not going away. We have to take some responsibility for much of it. What we have now is a conflict of philosophy and approaches to a remedy
The refugees are going to keep coming
originally posted by: halfoldman
Oh my God.
For the first time, I am grateful to be a South African.
The lessons we should learn from history have to be repeated for every new generation.
Well for some reason the UN is now dictating Europeans to accpet the Global Migration Pact agreement. And of course Liberal leaders agree without objection.
originally posted by: Zanti Misfit
a reply to: Phage
The U.N. Has No Legal Power in the United States to Dictate Any Policy Concerning Immigration .