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originally posted by: John333
originally posted by: peter vlar
originally posted by: John333
if you pay attention to the gospels. you may or may not have realised one thing. John is the only one who was actually there. and the gospels are of John's words. copies with probable translations. so you want to hear what matthew mark and luke said john said? or do you want to hear what john said himself?
If this is John's eyewitness account then why are there at least 3 authors who made multiple revisions with the final form of the Gospel being compiled at the tail end of the 1st century? There are very clear differences in the Greek indicating multiple authorship and the tail end of the 1st century attribution is a rather generous estimate based on grammar styles as the oldest actual manuscripts date from the very early 3rd century. There are definitely 'copies and probable translations' involved as you allude to, but within this one Gospel itself, including redactions. Who redacts portions of their eyewitness account? It is many things, but an eye witness account it is not. Bottom line is that there are no eyewitness accounts of Jesus anywhere in canonical text or contemporaneous Roman documents.
the other accounts were written as confirmation after Jesus death by the mathew mark and luke characters to emphasize that they had validated the information and the source from which they got it is true. the gospels are actually, exactly the same save for a few lines that are different between them. this no doubt would be because of translational, transpositional reasons. but it all begins with John who provides the ancient equivalent of a sworn affidavit before the court. and later other apostles of the christian church, verified and confirmed that by all regard. the information contained within was considered completely true by the people of the time and region. with king james being yet another confirmer of the content.
i know where we're going next just as i knew this question would come. and i had constructed the answer for you days ago, right after i wrote my last post. and without reading yours. we will deal with the context of contradictions among the gospels. i will also like to add that there is another version of the gospel in the Quran. each version, if you read them all together, sheds light on what message is really trying to be conveyed through their differences.
originally posted by: mOjOm
Does it not concern anyone that after everything that's been done in the name of the bible it's still needing some validation????
Isn't it better to first verify the damn thing before you start using it to run countless lives and taking other lives as well???
You skipped a major step there!!!
originally posted by: Marduk
originally posted by: John333
originally posted by: peter vlar
originally posted by: John333
if you pay attention to the gospels. you may or may not have realised one thing. John is the only one who was actually there. and the gospels are of John's words. copies with probable translations. so you want to hear what matthew mark and luke said john said? or do you want to hear what john said himself?
If this is John's eyewitness account then why are there at least 3 authors who made multiple revisions with the final form of the Gospel being compiled at the tail end of the 1st century? There are very clear differences in the Greek indicating multiple authorship and the tail end of the 1st century attribution is a rather generous estimate based on grammar styles as the oldest actual manuscripts date from the very early 3rd century. There are definitely 'copies and probable translations' involved as you allude to, but within this one Gospel itself, including redactions. Who redacts portions of their eyewitness account? It is many things, but an eye witness account it is not. Bottom line is that there are no eyewitness accounts of Jesus anywhere in canonical text or contemporaneous Roman documents.
the other accounts were written as confirmation after Jesus death by the mathew mark and luke characters to emphasize that they had validated the information and the source from which they got it is true. the gospels are actually, exactly the same save for a few lines that are different between them. this no doubt would be because of translational, transpositional reasons. but it all begins with John who provides the ancient equivalent of a sworn affidavit before the court. and later other apostles of the christian church, verified and confirmed that by all regard. the information contained within was considered completely true by the people of the time and region. with king james being yet another confirmer of the content.
i know where we're going next just as i knew this question would come. and i had constructed the answer for you days ago, right after i wrote my last post. and without reading yours. we will deal with the context of contradictions among the gospels. i will also like to add that there is another version of the gospel in the Quran. each version, if you read them all together, sheds light on what message is really trying to be conveyed through their differences.
Oh look, another apology from someone with no critical thinking skills
originally posted by: John333
originally posted by: Marduk
originally posted by: John333
originally posted by: peter vlar
originally posted by: John333
if you pay attention to the gospels. you may or may not have realised one thing. John is the only one who was actually there. and the gospels are of John's words. copies with probable translations. so you want to hear what matthew mark and luke said john said? or do you want to hear what john said himself?
If this is John's eyewitness account then why are there at least 3 authors who made multiple revisions with the final form of the Gospel being compiled at the tail end of the 1st century? There are very clear differences in the Greek indicating multiple authorship and the tail end of the 1st century attribution is a rather generous estimate based on grammar styles as the oldest actual manuscripts date from the very early 3rd century. There are definitely 'copies and probable translations' involved as you allude to, but within this one Gospel itself, including redactions. Who redacts portions of their eyewitness account? It is many things, but an eye witness account it is not. Bottom line is that there are no eyewitness accounts of Jesus anywhere in canonical text or contemporaneous Roman documents.
the other accounts were written as confirmation after Jesus death by the mathew mark and luke characters to emphasize that they had validated the information and the source from which they got it is true. the gospels are actually, exactly the same save for a few lines that are different between them. this no doubt would be because of translational, transpositional reasons. but it all begins with John who provides the ancient equivalent of a sworn affidavit before the court. and later other apostles of the christian church, verified and confirmed that by all regard. the information contained within was considered completely true by the people of the time and region. with king james being yet another confirmer of the content.
i know where we're going next just as i knew this question would come. and i had constructed the answer for you days ago, right after i wrote my last post. and without reading yours. we will deal with the context of contradictions among the gospels. i will also like to add that there is another version of the gospel in the Quran. each version, if you read them all together, sheds light on what message is really trying to be conveyed through their differences.
Oh look, another apology from someone with no critical thinking skills
its not critical thinking skills. of which i have a great surplus advantage over the average man. but the information i presented in this post... if you had even bothered to research your own questions. is how the information was validated for inclusion into the bible. they didnt just stick stories into the bible, they made sure that by all traceable accounts the information in them was historically accurate, using a system of trust and validations of swearings.
in response your oh look comment i have one of my own
oh look another denialist who cant accept the truth when it disagrees with their conclusion and makes them appear as though they have not done any research.. because they havent.
originally posted by: Marduk
originally posted by: John333
originally posted by: Marduk
originally posted by: John333
originally posted by: peter vlar
originally posted by: John333
if you pay attention to the gospels. you may or may not have realised one thing. John is the only one who was actually there. and the gospels are of John's words. copies with probable translations. so you want to hear what matthew mark and luke said john said? or do you want to hear what john said himself?
If this is John's eyewitness account then why are there at least 3 authors who made multiple revisions with the final form of the Gospel being compiled at the tail end of the 1st century? There are very clear differences in the Greek indicating multiple authorship and the tail end of the 1st century attribution is a rather generous estimate based on grammar styles as the oldest actual manuscripts date from the very early 3rd century. There are definitely 'copies and probable translations' involved as you allude to, but within this one Gospel itself, including redactions. Who redacts portions of their eyewitness account? It is many things, but an eye witness account it is not. Bottom line is that there are no eyewitness accounts of Jesus anywhere in canonical text or contemporaneous Roman documents.
the other accounts were written as confirmation after Jesus death by the mathew mark and luke characters to emphasize that they had validated the information and the source from which they got it is true. the gospels are actually, exactly the same save for a few lines that are different between them. this no doubt would be because of translational, transpositional reasons. but it all begins with John who provides the ancient equivalent of a sworn affidavit before the court. and later other apostles of the christian church, verified and confirmed that by all regard. the information contained within was considered completely true by the people of the time and region. with king james being yet another confirmer of the content.
i know where we're going next just as i knew this question would come. and i had constructed the answer for you days ago, right after i wrote my last post. and without reading yours. we will deal with the context of contradictions among the gospels. i will also like to add that there is another version of the gospel in the Quran. each version, if you read them all together, sheds light on what message is really trying to be conveyed through their differences.
Oh look, another apology from someone with no critical thinking skills
its not critical thinking skills. of which i have a great surplus advantage over the average man. but the information i presented in this post... if you had even bothered to research your own questions. is how the information was validated for inclusion into the bible. they didnt just stick stories into the bible, they made sure that by all traceable accounts the information in them was historically accurate, using a system of trust and validations of swearings.
in response your oh look comment i have one of my own
oh look another denialist who cant accept the truth when it disagrees with their conclusion and makes them appear as though they have not done any research.. because they havent.
Oh look, another apology from someone with no critical thinking skills
originally posted by: GENERAL EYES
No proof whatsoever these unearthed skeletons are part of the Sodom/Gomorrah Legends.
originally posted by: VelvetSplash
Ironic that anyone would hold up the KJV of the Bible as THE source, especially in this thread, given that King James was a homosexual.
Any way - of course this is sensationalistic nonsense, but it makes for better headlines and keeps the religious nutters happy for a little bit longer doesn't it?