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Well see, you just proved "their" point.
The fact that you think it's a myth shows you're oblivious to your own white privilege and supremacy that you're benefiting from every day. You've now self-identified as part of the problem, and your way of life must be righteously "dismantled."
originally posted by: tothetenthpower
a reply to: Jamie1
It's very simple. And if anybody were to deny the following as being accurate, you're just lying, or ignorant of how the world works outside of your little bubble.
It is easier to attain success, as a white person, as opposed to somebody of any other color/race in North America
The Montgomery Bus Boycott, a seminal event in the U.S. civil rights movement, was a political and social protest campaign against the policy of racial segregation on the public transit system of Montgomery, Alabama. The campaign lasted from December 1, 1955—when Rosa Parks, an African American woman, was arrested for refusing to surrender her seat to a white person—to December 20, 1956, when a federal ruling, Browder v. Gayle, took effect, and led to a United States Supreme Court decision that declared the Alabama and Montgomery laws requiring segregated buses to be unconstitutional.[1] Many important figures in the civil rights movement took part in the boycott, including Reverend Martin Luther King, Jr. and Ralph Abernathy
Segregation of public facilities — including water fountains and restrooms — was officially outlawed by the Civil Rights Act of 1964, signed into law by President Lyndon B. Johnson on July 2, 1964, after a rare cloture vote in the U.S. Senate. (Sen. Robert F. Byrd, D-W.Va., a former Klansman, spoke against the bill on the Senate floor for 14 hours, 13 minutes straight.)
I was confused... So I Googled "white privilege" and found this definition, direct from the www.myholyoke.edu website.
originally posted by: Willtell
It means that the ruling population of America is white and its only recently did they not practice overt racism.
Indeed, only since the civil rights era of the 50, 60’s and on did some measure of racial equality even begin to exist.
For people to deny this is just being stubborn.
originally posted by: tothetenthpower
a reply to: Jamie1
It's very simple. And if anybody were to deny the following as being accurate, you're just lying, or ignorant of how the world works outside of your little bubble.
It is easier to attain success, as a white person, as opposed to somebody of any other color/race in North America
That is the essence of white privilege. It's institutional, not personal racism. Our society, as a whole was built for white people, up until the 60's ish. We've come a very long way at eradicating that and creating a more multicultural system, where people of non white color CAN succeed at the same rate as whites.
But that's not the case for a lot of different places in North America still.
Now just because it exists, doesn't mean we get to bash whites over the head with it, everytime it comes up. Like Feminism and the use of Male Privilege. Yeah, it exists, but 98% of men aren't actively USING their so called privilege to keep women down.
That would be same thing in the case of white privilege.
~Tenth
originally posted by: Jamie1
So "white privilege" is a concept to stereotype, label, and blame "whites" as being racists who are happy perpetuating their "white supremacy."
(...)
Create a concept that defines whites as racists, and when they object, declare that their objections to being called "racists" proves they're racists.
originally posted by: Yeahkeepwatchingme
a reply to: Willtell
It's called the past. Why do whites have to pay for the crimes of their ancestors? Do people not realize blacks were sold into slavery by other blacks? By your logic, they can't possibly have any edge because they were subjugated in the past.