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originally posted by: mbkennel
OK, then call it a field which is more specific, and what physicists use because it describes the structure of the apparently experimentally successful theory.
No movement is not energy---one can compute energy as a function of movement.
You proved nothing, just asserted.
originally posted by: ImaFungi
originally posted by: mbkennel
What specifically counts as "substance" and what does not?
Is there a word we can agree to use which turns our understanding of eternal reality into absolutely something, and absolutely nothing? Absolutely something being that which is absolutely opposite of nothing.
Something cannot come from nothing.
Something cannot be turned into nothing.
I refer to something, as substance.
The only kink in this discussion, is the nature of movement.
Which is real, but not 'a thing'. But an aspect of things.
A thing exists.
A thing that exists moves.
It is still the same thing entirely.
But there is a real difference.
And its real difference is not 'a thing'.
Movement is not a 'substance'. (unless it is... as I have not deeply considered the nature of movement enough to say)
A thing exists.
That thing which exists, when moving, is said to have more energy.
The thing itself; the thing as it was before it started moving, is the same thing as it is while it is moving.
Then we must consider, how it might require a thing, to make a thing move.
But then we just get entirely into a rabbit hole.
So yes, I will stand by my claim;
Nothing equals nothing.
That which is not nothing.
Is something.
That which is something, can move.
originally posted by: mbkennel
Too imprecise. You're still trying to process linguistically with all sorts of imprecise assumptions and you imagine, falsely, you're going to get somewhere. People have tried that for millenia, but with the development of modern philosophy educated humans know that doesn't work on its own.
originally posted by: mbkennel
Example: The number Boolean 1 is the absolute opposite of Boolean 0. In the Boolean group with the meaning of 'group' in the algebraic mathematical sense with the meaning of 'absolute opposite'
So, restricted to that scenario, one can equate "Boolean 1" as fulfilling your "Absolutely something" and "Boolean 0" as fulfilling your "absolutely nothing". Or I could have done the reverse.
For what definition of "come from" and for what definition of 'turned into"? What is the space of the 'come from' and 'turned into' operations? Notice also the passive voice. 'come from' and 'turned into' which of course linguistically evade the notion of any progenitor of the operation.
in physics:
Positive mass particles which are instantiations of the fundamental fields in standard model, when moving translationally through 3+1 dimensional space, have more energy when they have a higher velocity than lower velocity, relative to a particular inertial frame of reference.
Notice all the specific qualifications which need to be made? (And each of those are connected to a significant ontology and experimental set of phenomena).
"The thing itself; the thing as it was before it started moving, is the same thing as it is while it is moving." - imafungi
For particles which have a number conservation law which is generally upheld in typical experimental situations.
That's just defining that you mean linguistically nothing is the negation of something without defining what they apply to outside language or what the 'thing' is. True, but useless.
"That which is something, can move." - imafungi
Stop. You're trying to do everything with linguistic logic.
How does Boolean 1 'move'? Doesn't even make sense.
Gravitons are hypothetical. We didn't know the mass of the Higgs boson until we confirmed it experimentally. I think the original hypothesis said they would likely be massless if they exist. However you could try to form an alternate hypothesis that if they have some non-zero mass, it might have something to do with our dark matter observations. We don't know if they even exist and they would be difficult to detect, even more difficult than neutrinos.
originally posted by: ImaFungi
What is the supposed mass of a graviton, and how many exist on average per square mile?
Explain why turning on a flashlight wouldn't prove that false. What is the form of energy stored in the batteries before you turn the flashlight on?
Are there always an equal number of photons existing at any given time?
So far no unified field theory has passed scientific scrutiny; this is well known.
If light is purely a substance which can only move at light speed. Then field theory isnt an explanation of reality, I keep having to remember scientists dont care about reality (only what toys they can make from it), because field theory implies an ultimate connected structure, connected at every point in space, which wouldnt be true.
Read the papers on how we have established upper limits on the mass of photons, through observation. They don't actually prove the prove the mass is zero, any more than a fly landing on your bathroom scale not registering proves the fly is massless. But we have means of detection far more accurate than a bathroom scale and even using those we can't detect any photon mass.
So why is it said light does not have rest mass, simply because it can not be put to rest?
There is ongoing research with even tighter limits if you search for it, and that research describes the mass detection methods in detail.
It is almost certainly impossible to do any experiment that would establish the photon rest mass to be exactly zero. The best we can hope to do is place limits on it. A non-zero rest mass would introduce a small damping factor in the inverse square Coulomb law of electrostatic forces. That means the electrostatic force would be weaker over very large distances.
Likewise, the behavior of static magnetic fields would be modified. An upper limit to the photon mass can be inferred through satellite measurements of planetary magnetic fields. The Charge Composition Explorer spacecraft was used to derive an upper limit of 6 × 10^−16 eV with high certainty. This was slightly improved in 1998 by Roderic Lakes in a laboratory experiment that looked for anomalous forces on a Cavendish balance. The new limit is 7 × 10^−17 eV....
Boolean infinity? Never heard of it. You're talking nonsense and you seem to have completely missed the point. You've spent enough time looking into physics that you should be able to describe things better in the language that scientists use, but it seems you're not even trying when you make up a term like "Boolean infinity".
originally posted by: ImaFungi
Yes you can do that, and the infinite decimal places from 0 to the 1 are also not 0, but aspects of the 1?
Well, it may be easier to use Boolean 0 and Boolean infinity. If you want to represent the differences between nothing and something.
in physics:
Positive mass particles which are instantiations of the fundamental fields in standard model, when moving translationally through 3+1 dimensional space, have more energy when they have a higher velocity than lower velocity, relative to a particular inertial frame of reference.
Notice all the specific qualifications which need to be made? (And each of those are connected to a significant ontology and experimental set of phenomena).
You don't demonstrate this.
I am familiar with the common notions and understandings of science
Scientists admit their ignorance, the limitations of their theories, and the limitations of the scientific method. It seems that only people unfamiliar with science argue the contrary. Further, the way to battle ignorance is with knowledge, not with even greater ignorance that ignores the science learned in the last century (or two).
I am only attempting to battle the ignorance and mystery that exists.
If it was true that you are "familiar with the common notions and understandings of science" then you would already understand why mbkennel made the qualification "relative to a particular inertial frame of reference". If you are in the same inertial frame of reference as the moving mass then you don't observe energy related to the motion of that mass.
Can I ask you; Physically, why does a mass moving with greater velocity have greater energy? Its almost, or maybe is, unexplainable, it might just be obvious and intuitive, that the harder you stub your toe the more it will hurt.
Relativity explains why the an observer on the Earth sees the asteroid moving toward it and why an observer on the asteroid sees the Earth moving toward it. The different reference frames affect what each observer observes in very interesting and non-trivial ways, but I can't think of any of those ways having anything to do with bonds having to do more work. Again this is just more evidence that contradicts your claim that "I am familiar with the common notions and understandings of science".
But I almost want to think it has to do with the bonds of the material in motion having to do more work to remain together...or something. Would you agree that it requires 'something' to move something?
A photon is something.
A photon is something moving.
It is said a photon is something, which cannot not be moving.
Something cannot come from nothing.
The something that is the photon must come from somewhere.
Are there always an equal number of photons existing at any given time?
originally posted by: dragonridr
Got it backwards if a mass the size of the sun popped into out atmosphere the earth would immediately disapear inside of it quicker than we could even describe.
A photon is something.
A photon is something moving.
It is said a photon is something, which cannot not be moving.
Something cannot come from nothing.
The something that is the photon must come from somewhere.
Are there always an equal number of photons existing at any given time?
In practical day to day experience, i.e mechanics and chemistry and not nuclear physics, this distinction means that photons, electromagnetism in particular is very very wave-like (until x-rays and higher-frequency photons), and electrons & nuclei are very very particle-like. In truth, we have discovered that both have both natures at their core, namely they behave as quantum mechanical objects.
originally posted by: BASSPLYR
a reply to: pfishy
I'm saying super cool the non linear medium so the probe beam is slowed down forcing the vacuum to create a virtual particle to fill the void during the delay of the signal beam manifestation. Not tachyons. Actual particles. Say if I were to do this with light I'm expecting virtual photons to be created momentarily. real usable photons created from the vacuum to maintain the needed mathematical symmetry. What if there is a way to do this with other particles. Not super luminal. More like cheating the system by fudging with the temporal symmetry during phase conjugation phenomena via holding the conjugate's feet to the mathematical coals.
originally posted by: BASSPLYR
a reply to: mbkennel
So it could theoretically be possible to set up a quark phase conjugation scenario in the nucleus of a atom if done just right? And if you had the equipment to do such a thing?
Does atomic weight matter in such a situation if it were doable in regards to the output? Ie the heavier the atom the heavier the potential quarks or larger particle variety inducible as an output? Furthermore, in phase conjugation I understand if you put EM (light or microwaves) in you get the same out just phase conjugated. Can you theoretically, pump quarks or some other type of particle (muons? I dunno how big those are) into the atomic nucleus and due to the phase conjugation get a different quark (mass or weight) or particle signal output as the product of the two pump beams, the bragg condition and the probe beam? Like some sorta particle phase conjugation alchemy?
Another question. I know you can slow light by super cooling it. Stop it out right and freeze it practically. Could a similar condition be set up with other particles other than light?