There's No Such Thing As Reverse Racism

I am tired of seeing this phrase bandied about on blogs and message boards, "reverse racism" is itself a racist idea forwaring the notion that only white people can discriminate based on color.

Here is the definition of racism:

1 : a belief that race is the primary determinant of human traits and capacities and that racial differences produce an inherent superiority of a particular race 2 : racial prejudice or discrimination

Where above does it specify which race this applies to?

If a white person hates black people - it is called racism.
If a Hispanic hates Asians - it is called racism.
If a black person hates whites - it is called RACISM.

There's nothing to reverse. If you catch someone using this term, call them out on it, there's no excuse to allow this ignorance to persist.

-d

reply to post by DirtyD


Technically you are correct. Racism is Racism no matter the races of the instigator and victim.

Unfortunately, today we see many occasions where racism is excused if the victim happens to be white "because other white people did it to non-whites in the past" so this makes it justified in the minds of the delusional.

Therefore, we do need to use the term "Reverse Racism" because it reminds us what the delusional are attempting to do - justify present-day racism because of past racism.

reply to post by DirtyD


Reverse racism is when a government, company or community provide unequal treatment to all races by disavowing one race. This is done by instituting specific types of race-only programs and/or quotas that eliminate one race from the equation, quotas are probably the best example.

Apart from that, any race can be xenophobic or racist.

Cheers - Dave

bobs_uruncle
reply to post by DirtyD

 

Reverse racism is when a government, company or community provide unequal treatment to all races by disavowing one race. This is done by instituting specific types of race-only programs and/or quotas that eliminate one race from the equation, quotas are probably the best example.

Apart from that, any race can be xenophobic or racist.

Cheers - Dave

If a quota disallows an institution from hiring an individual based upon the color of their skin then it is just plain racism, whether it be government, company or community - nothing reverse about it.

reply to post by DirtyD


Words have the meanings you give them. It's like when a person redefines racism as power + privilege = racism, it's a redefining or group of words to get a meaning across. Even if you disagree with the theory, you can't say the words don't convey a point or meaning.

Reverse racism is often the assumption that an act is race based or that group is inherently racist where I'm from, though it can also refer to employment quotas etc ... like others have pointed out.

You could refer to it as a victim complex or something similar in many circumstances, and you could say that reverse racism is just racism ... it's not entirely wrong but the extra descriptor has a very good reason to be there because the person who is being racist isn't acknowledging that they are prejudiced, they are claiming they are responding to prejudice.

You can disagree with the theory, go nuts! The two words together have their uses though regardless of your opinion of its existence or not.

reply to post by Pinke


Please explain how power + privilege = racism.

any sort of anti discrimination is discrimination to begin with

reply to post by DirtyD


Every time I hear the phrase "Reverse Racism" I ask the individual if it means the offender actually loves them. That always makes them stop and think.

You're right. There is no reverse racism...never has been and never will be. Only the ignorant use that term.

Reverse racism sounds more like hating your own race while loving others.

But I know thats not what it means, it means nothing. Racism is either somthing a person or persons think or act on discriminating an other race. Racism is binary.

reply to post by TDawgRex


I think that would be about the only valid definition I can think of.

I don't care if it is called "Chartreuse Racism" or "Monday-Only Racism"....

It's still racism....

DirtyD

bobs_uruncle
reply to post by DirtyD

 

Reverse racism is when a government, company or community provide unequal treatment to all races by disavowing one race. This is done by instituting specific types of race-only programs and/or quotas that eliminate one race from the equation, quotas are probably the best example.

Apart from that, any race can be xenophobic or racist.

Cheers - Dave

If a quota disallows an institution from hiring an individual based upon the color of their skin then it is just plain racism, whether it be government, company or community - nothing reverse about it.

edit on Wed44Wed, 08 Jan 2014 01:44:34 -06003114Wed by DirtyD because: (no reason given)

Although you make a good point, reverse racism seems applicable to a society where the majority are some race that favours other races through quotas over the majority. In employment, a position should be given to the person most suited to the job, not fulfilled based on a political agenda. In Canada it would seem most positions are fulfilled based on a political agenda and the reasons seem to be because it is easier to govern multiple groups with no consensus, rather than a couple of groups with consensus. This may change in the near future as the economy collapses further, since the financial gap is increasing at a phenomenal rate producing an engineered two class system.

Cheers - Dave

reply to post by bobs_uruncle


Here is the states the term reverse racism seems to only apply when a minority or minority group uses racism against whites.

According to Wikipedia, reverse racism is defined as:

Reverse racism is discrimination against the dominant racial group in a society.[1][2]

But again, I don't see how the term reverse or backwards applies. The term seems to be borne out of white guilt, and equates to acceptable institutionalized racism.

DirtyD
reply to post by bobs_uruncle

 

Here is the states the term reverse racism seems to only apply when a minority or minority group uses racism against whites.

According to Wikipedia, reverse racism is defined as:

Reverse racism is discrimination against the dominant racial group in a society.[1][2]

But again, I don't see how the term reverse or backwards applies. The term seems to be borne out of white guilt, and equates to acceptable institutionalized racism.

And again, racism is racism, quotas are reverse racism by one's own government against the dominant racial group. It has nothing to do with white guilt, it has everything to do with manipulated world view and political agenda.

Cheers - Dave

reply to post by bobs_uruncle


I see what you're saying, my point is that the term reverse racism is manipulative. Quotas are prejudicial, racism is defined as prejudice regardless of who the victim or offender is.

reply to post by DirtyD


So if one group of people get free government handouts, including cash, dental and hospital care, all because of their race, what is this called?

I would call this reverse racism, but perhaps it's not?

What would you call that?

reply to post by AlphaHawk


Anyone who is sufficiently poor in this country can receive food stamps and welfare.

If anyone was denied these benefit based on their ethnicity, I would call that racism.

reply to post by DirtyD


I'm not talking about poor. I am talking about a specific racial group that gets preferential treatment that other races don't get.

This group could be well off and would still get these benefits.

Because of their race.

AlphaHawk
reply to post by DirtyD

 

I'm not talking about poor. I am talking about a specific racial group that gets preferential treatment that other races don't get.

This group could be well off and would still get these benefits.

Because of their race.

Okay, so you say since this specific group is in the minority, the preferential treatment they receive is "reverse racism". Yet if this same group becomes the majority, we drop the reverse and call it as it is. Notice the behavior hasn't changed.

DirtyD
reply to post by Pinke

 

Please explain how power + privilege = racism.

It's getting away from the point I suppose. Addressing the arguments:

1. Reverse racism doesn't exist because the word for any form of racism is of course 'racism'

This falls over on the grounds that reverse racism is terminology constructed to refer to specific categories of racism. Regardless of whether or not you agree with that construct, it exists in other people's vocabulary.

2. Reverse racism doesn't exist because it doesn't exist in reality.

That's a possibility but the theory / construct still exists. Further to that, how else would explain people enacting 'racist' policies to assist under represented races? Referring to it as racism on its own completely overlooks the fact that there are positive intentions involved potentially by everyone involved.

DirtyD
reply to post by bobs_uruncle

 

I see what you're saying, my point is that the term reverse racism is manipulative. Quotas are prejudicial, racism is defined as prejudice regardless of who the victim or offender is.

All language is manipulative. Read 1984 the book if you haven't already!

The other construct I mentioned which is power + privilege = racism is of course manipulative because it excludes the majority from being victims of racism. I'm not evaluating that theory here, but it's people attempting to carve meaning into their world with language.